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Zeekin Around
ATP Checkride Study Guide
Organized by FAA-S-ACS-11A — every Area of Operation, Task, and element.
zeekinaround.com/atp · Every V-speed and limitation is type-specific — use the AFM and the FSB report for your airplane.
Area I. Preflight Preparation
Task A. Operation of Systems
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with aircraft systems and their components; and their normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures.
References: AC 90-117, AC 91.21-1, AC 91-78, AC 120-76; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-23, FAA-H-8083-25; FSB Report (type specific); POH/AFM
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
How is systems knowledge tested at the ATP level, and what sources should your answers come from?
Answers come from the POH/AFM and the type-specific FSB Report — almost every good answer starts with your airplane's numbers, not generic ones. Differently than at commercial, the ACS expects you to:
Explain and describe the operation of the aircraft systems and components using correct terminology (AA.I.A.S1)
Recall immediate action items or memory items (AA.I.A.S2)
Identify system or component limitations listed in the POH/AFM (AA.I.A.S3)
The knowledge elements sweep every system from landing gear to HUD (AA.I.A.K1–K16), but the evaluator samples; what's graded throughout is whether you answer in your airplane's terms and know where the limitation lives. The systems fundamentals — landing gear, brakes, and anti-skid (K1), powerplant (K2), fuel (K4), oil (K5), hydraulics (K6), flight controls (K12), and pitot-static (K13) — are built card-by-card in the Commercial guide's systems task; the ATP layer on each is your type's architecture and AFM limitations. K9's avionics sweep (ADS-B, CPDLC, GNSS, ELT, EFB) lives in the Instrument and Commercial guides, and TCAS and terrain warning systems are covered under Task I.E. Deferring inoperative equipment (AA.I.A.S4, K17) is exercised under Task II.A — the MEL and CDL cards live there.
Walk through how a pressurization system actually works (PHAK ch. 7).
Conditioned air is delivered to the cabin continuously; cabin altitude is controlled by regulating how fast that air leaves, through the outflow valve (PHAK ch. 7). The control system provides:
A cabin pressure regulator — controls cabin pressure to the selected value in the isobaric range and limits it to a preset value in the differential range
The outflow valve — the working muscle that meters exit air
A safety valve — combination pressure relief (prevents exceeding the predetermined differential), vacuum relief (lets ambient air in if outside pressure exceeds cabin pressure), and dump valve (flight deck switch dumps cabin air)
A typical system holds a cabin altitude of about 8,000 feet at the airplane's maximum designed cruising altitude. Monitoring instruments: cabin differential pressure gauge, cabin altimeter, and cabin rate-of-climb indicator (PHAK ch. 7).
What limits how high the airplane can fly while holding a comfortable cabin — isobaric versus differential range?
Structure. The fuselage is designed to withstand a particular maximum cabin differential pressure — the difference between cabin and ambient pressure — set by the structural strength of the cabin and the relationship of cabin size to probable rupture areas such as windows and doors (PHAK ch. 7).
Isobaric range: the system holds a constant cabin altitude as you climb.
Differential control: when the airplane reaches the altitude where the inside-outside difference equals the maximum differential, the system shifts over — any further climb produces a corresponding climb in cabin altitude, because the controller will not let the structural limit be exceeded (PHAK ch. 7).
That's why max operating altitude and max differential are paired limitations in the AFM — know both numbers for your type.
Describe the two types of thrust reversers and how reverse thrust is used on landing (AFH ch. 16).
Target reversers: clamshell doors that swivel from the stowed position at the tailpipe to redirect exhaust forward.
Cascade reversers: normally on turbofans, often reversing only the fan air — blocking doors obstruct forward fan thrust and redirect it through cascade vanes.
The flow never fully reverses — the final exhaust path is about 45° from straight ahead, so efficiency is limited, and less than maximum rpm in reverse reduces it further. Reverse thrust is more effective at high speed than at low speed, so use it as soon as prudent after touchdown. Some types pitch nose-up when reverse is selected (worse combined with spoiler pitch-up) and must be firmly on the ground, nosewheel down, first. And remember the contrast with props: idle reverse on a propeller produces large drag; idle reverse on a jet produces very little (AFH ch. 16).
What protects you from a thrust reverser deploying in flight, and what if it happens anyway (AA.I.A.K3)?
Uncommanded or inadvertent deployment of a thrust reverser while airborne is an emergency (AFH ch. 16). The design protections are layered:
A lock system to keep reversers from operating in the air
Another lock preventing operation with the thrust levers out of the idle detent
An auto-stow circuit commanding reverser stowage any time deployment would be inappropriate — such as during takeoff and while airborne
The ACS names uncommanded reverse procedures explicitly (AA.I.A.K3), so know your AFM's procedure as a recall item: which lever motions are prohibited, what the airplane's controllability penalty is, and any airspeed limits the AFM imposes after a deploy. This is a place where the honest oral answer is your type's procedure, verbatim.
What is negative torque sensing on a turboprop, and why does the fixed-shaft engine need it (AFH ch. 15)?
NTS is the automatic backstop for engine failure on a fixed-shaft turboprop: when propeller torque starts driving the engine, the system limits the torque the engine can extract and drives the blades toward feather to reduce drag (AFH ch. 15). The fixed-shaft engine needs it because a failed engine's windmilling propeller drives the compressor, absorbing large amounts of power — a control threat in a twin unless the propeller is feathered immediately. Two cautions for the oral:
NTS is an emergency backup, not a substitute for feathering with the condition lever
Contrast with a free power-turbine (split-shaft) engine like the PT6: the propeller isn't on the engine shaft, so it can be feathered with the basic engine still running, and prop rpm is selectable independent of gas generator rpm (AFH ch. 15)
Synchronizer versus synchrophaser — what's the difference (AA.I.A.K3)?
A propeller synchronizer precisely matches rpm between engines. A synchrophaser goes one step further: it matches rpm and compares and adjusts the blade phase angle between propellers (AFH ch. 13). From the pilot's seat they operate similarly — the point of both is noise and vibration reduction. The ACS lists synchronizing and synchrophasing among the propeller knowledge elements alongside feathering, auto-feather, and NTS (AA.I.A.K3); if your type has a phase-control knob, be able to say what it's actually adjusting.
How do the flight director, autopilot, and FMS relate to each other, and what's the crew discipline around them (AA.I.A.K9)?
Flight director: computes and displays steering commands on the ADI — it incorporates the attitude display within its system, driven by a mode controller and flight director computer (IFH ch. 5).
Autopilot: can fly those same computed commands, and integrated systems allow more flight director modes as capability grows (IFH ch. 5).
FMS: supplies the navigation and performance problem the autoflight system is solving.
The crew discipline the ACS is probing (AA.I.A.R3 — monitoring and management of automated systems) shows up on the ground first: both pilots should review takeoff data entered in an FMS, or separately compute it and cross-check against the takeoff data card — and recalculate if plans change while taxiing (AFH ch. 16). State your operator's automation policy: who makes mode selections, who verifies, and what gets announced.
What does 'following checklists or procedures' mean as a risk element at this level (AA.I.A.R4)?
It means the evaluator is watching how you use the paper, not whether you can find it. The Task requires demonstrating the systems through the use of the appropriate checklists and normal and abnormal procedures (AA.I.A.S6), and separately requires recall of immediate action items or memory items, if appropriate (AA.I.A.S2) — so you must know which items your AFM designates as memory items, execute those from recall, and then confirm with the checklist. Detection and management of a malfunction (AA.I.A.R1, R2) is graded as a sequence:
Recognize from the indications
Silence and confirm the alert
Memory items, if published
The QRH/abnormal checklist
The follow-on decisions
Reciting a checklist item-by-item from memory when it isn't a memory item reads as worse discipline, not better.
Deep Dive
Protections at the edges of the envelope
The ACS added envelope protection as its own knowledge element — AOA warning and protection, and speed protection (AA.I.A.K15). The stall-warning half of that story (shaker, pusher, and AC 120-109's warning definitions) is developed under Task V.A; here, be ready for the high-speed half and the degraded cases.
What is the Mach compensating device, and what happens if it's inoperative (AC 61-107)?
Most turbojet airplanes capable of Mach-range cruise have some form of trim and autopilot Mach compensating device — a stick puller — to alert the pilot to inadvertent excursions beyond certificated MMO (AC 61-107, para 3-2). Two things the AC is blunt about:
If a malfunction requires disabling the stick puller, the aircraft must be operated at speeds well below MMO, per the AFM procedures
The stick puller should never be disabled during normal flight operations — the AC recounts operators disabling airspeed/Mach warnings to run past VMO/MMO, and the chain it invites: flutter, control-surface flow separation, aileron buzz or snatch, Mach tuck, and loss of the airplane (AC 61-107, para 3-2)
Pair this with your type's answer: which protections exist in normal law or with all systems up, and what remains in each degraded mode. That mapping comes from the AFM and the FSB report, and "it depends on the control law" is only a passing answer if you can then say what each law provides.
What should you be able to say about ice protection systems at the ATP level (AA.I.A.K10, K8)?
Three layers beyond the commercial-level anti-ice/deice distinction (that groundwork is in the Commercial guide's systems task):
Coverage map — the ACS expects anti-ice/deice knowledge across pitot-static protection, turbine inlet, propeller, windshield, and airfoil surfaces (AA.I.A.K10). Know which method protects each surface on your type and what the AFM requires to be on, and when
Supply side — pneumatic and environmental systems knowledge includes the supply for ice protection systems (AA.I.A.K8): if your protection is bleed-air fed, know where the air comes from and what using it costs (that performance conversation continues in Task I.B)
Limitations — icing operating limitations are AFM material (AA.I.A.S3), and ground deicing, holdover times, and the clean wing concept are exercised under Tasks I.B and II.A
The cabin side: fire, smoke, and evacuation
Two knowledge elements — fire/smoke detection and suppression (AA.I.A.K14) and crewmember/passenger equipment (AA.I.A.K11) — reach past the flight deck into the cabin, and the regulatory anchor for both is the part 121 emergency-training rule.
What should you be able to say about fire and smoke detection and suppression (AA.I.A.K14)?
Systems side: pure AFM material — know your type's detection loops and warnings, and which extinguishing bottles protect the engines, APU, cargo compartments, and lavatories, plus the discharge procedure and any limitations.
Crew side: regulated by 121.417, which requires:
Emergency training in fire in flight or on the surface, and smoke control procedures with emphasis on electrical equipment and related circuit breakers in cabin areas — including galleys and lavatories (121.417(b)(3)(ii))
Training in portable fire extinguishers, with emphasis on the type of extinguisher to be used on different classes of fires (121.417(b)(2)(iii))
A protective breathing equipment (PBE) drill by every crewmember, combatting an actual or simulated fire (121.417(c)(1))
Recurrent training every 24 calendar months operating each type of installed hand extinguisher (121.417(c)(2))
For the oral: name your type's fire memory items and where the smoke-removal procedure lives.
What does the crewmember and passenger equipment element cover — oxygen, exits, evacuation (AA.I.A.K11)?
Three buckets, and know your evacuation duties cold:
Oxygen — the flight-crew supply quantities and mask-wear rules of 121.333 are covered under Task I.E; the system mechanics (source, quick-donning masks, passenger drop-out) are your type's AFM material
Exits and equipment — 121.417 requires individual instruction in the location, function, and operation of emergency equipment, including ditching and evacuation equipment and emergency exits in the emergency mode with the evacuation slide/raft pack attached, with emphasis on operating exits under adverse conditions (121.417(b)(2))
Evacuation duties — training covers emergency assignments and coordination among crewmembers, and evacuation of persons who need the assistance of another person to reach an exit (121.417(b)(1), (b)(3)(iii)); crewmembers serving above 25,000 feet also get physiology training — respiration, hypoxia, duration of consciousness, gas expansion and bubble formation, decompression phenomena (121.417(e))
Task B. Performance and Limitations
To determine that the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with operating an aircraft safely within its operating envelope.
References: 14 CFR parts 1, 91; AC 20-117, AC 61-107, AC 61-138, AC 91-74, AC 91-79, AC 120-27, AC 120-58, AC 120-60, AC 135-17; AIM; Chart Supplements; FAA-H-8083-1, FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-23, FAA-H-8083-25; POH/AFM; SAFO 19001
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
Define V1 — the full definition, not the shorthand.
The expanded definition from AC 120-62 via the AFH: V1 is the speed selected for each takeoff, based upon approved performance data and specified conditions, representing both the maximum speed by which a rejected takeoff assures a safe stop within the remaining runway or runway and stopway, and the minimum speed which assures the takeoff can be safely completed within the remaining runway, or runway and clearway, after failure of the most critical engine at the designated speed (AFH ch. 16).
Certification anchors it: V1 may not be less than VEF plus the speed gained during the interval between engine failure and the pilot's first stopping action — applying brakes, reducing thrust, or deploying speed brakes (25.107(a)(2)). So V1 already contains recognition time; there is no cushion left for deciding at V1.
What is VEF, and what bounds it (25.107)?
VEF is the calibrated airspeed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail for certification purposes. It is selected by the applicant but may not be less than VMCG determined under 25.149(e) (25.107(a)(1)). The chain matters for the oral: VMCG floors VEF, VEF plus the recognition increment floors V1, and V1 floors VR. If the engine fails before VEF-like speeds — below VMCG — the reject isn't a performance question at all; it's the only controllable option, because rudder alone cannot hold the centerline (25.149(e)).
What are the certification minimums for VR and V2 (25.107)?
VR may not be less than:
V1
105 percent of VMC
The speed that allows reaching V2 before 35 feet above the takeoff surface
A speed producing VLOF margins over VMU (the minimum unstick speed) — e.g., 110 percent of VMU all-engines / 105 percent one-engine-inoperative (108/104 if geometry-limited) (25.107(e))
V2MIN may not be less than 1.13 VSR for two- and three-engine turboprops — and for any turbojet without provisions for a significant one-engine-inoperative stall-speed reduction, regardless of engine count — 1.08 VSR for the others, and 1.10 times VMC (25.107(b)). V2 itself must also give at least the second-segment climb gradient of 25.121(b) (25.107(c)). Never quote type numbers — they come off the takeoff data for that runway, that weight, that day (AFH ch. 16).
Define VMCG (25.149(e)).
The minimum control speed on the ground: the calibrated airspeed during the takeoff run at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is possible to maintain control using the rudder alone — without nosewheel steering — as limited by 150 pounds of force, with lateral control only to keep the wings level, and continue the takeoff safely. The demonstration standard: from the point of failure to recovery parallel to centerline, the path may not deviate more than 30 feet laterally from the centerline (25.149(e)). Established with maximum takeoff thrust, most unfavorable CG and weight, and the airplane trimmed for takeoff. Operationally this is why the pilot flying's hand comes off nosewheel steering and onto the wheel around 80 knots or VMCG (AFH ch. 16) — the certification case assumed rudder only.
And VMC in the air for a transport category airplane (25.149(b)–(d))?
The calibrated airspeed at which, when the critical engine is suddenly made inoperative, it is possible to maintain control with not more than 5° of bank in straight flight. Certification conditions: maximum available takeoff thrust, most unfavorable CG, airplane trimmed for takeoff, and VMC may not exceed 1.13 VSR (25.149(c)). During recovery, rudder force may not exceed 150 pounds, no reduction of thrust on the operating engines, and no dangerous attitude or heading change of more than 20° (25.149(d)). There are also approach/landing minimum control speeds — VMCL (and VMCL-2 for three-plus engines) with go-around thrust and 5° bank (25.149(f), (g)) — worth naming if your type publishes them.
Accelerate-stop, accelerate-go, and balanced field — how do they fit together?
From the AFH glossary: accelerate-stop distance is the distance to accelerate to V1 with all engines at takeoff power, experience an engine failure at V1, and bring the airplane to a stop; accelerate-go distance is the distance to accelerate to V1, fail the critical engine at V1, and continue the takeoff on the remaining engine(s) (AFH ch. 16). Takeoff distance itself is the greater of the one-engine-inoperative distance to 35 feet, or 115 percent of the all-engines distance to 35 feet (25.113(a)); on a wet runway the screen height drops to 15 feet (25.113(b)). When V1 is selected so the stop case and the go case need the same pavement, the field is balanced — that field length is the shortest runway that covers both outcomes, and moving V1 trades one distance against the other.
What are the part 121 takeoff field limits — runway, stopway, clearway (121.189)?
For turbine airplanes certificated under current rules, takeoff weight must allow:
Accelerate-stop distance not exceeding runway plus stopway
Takeoff distance not exceeding runway plus clearway, with the clearway credit limited to not greater than one-half the length of the runway
Takeoff run not greater than the runway (121.189(c))
Corrections are required for runway, elevation, effective gradient, ambient temperature, wind component, and — where AFM limitations exist — wet versus dry surface; wet-grooved/PFC data may only be used on runways actually grooved or PFC-treated and maintained acceptably (121.189(e)).
Walk the one-engine-inoperative climb segments and their required gradients for a two-engine airplane (25.121).
First segment (gear extended, between VLOF and gear fully retracted): steady gradient positive (0.3 percent for three engines, 0.5 for four)
Second segment (gear retracted, takeoff flaps, at V2, takeoff thrust): 2.4 percent (2.7 three-engine, 3.0 four-engine), carried to at least 400 feet above the surface (25.121(b))
Final takeoff (en route configuration, at VFTO, maximum continuous thrust): 1.2 percent (1.5/1.7) (25.121(c))
Approach climb (go-around configuration, one engine inoperative, at not more than 1.4 VSR, gear retracted, maximum landing weight): 2.1 percent (2.4/2.7) (25.121(d))
These are certification gradients — the AFM's climb-limited takeoff weight is where they bite on a hot, high day. Second segment is almost always the limiting one; be able to say why for your type.
What obstacle clearance does the dispatched takeoff path guarantee (121.189(d), (f))?
Takeoff weight must allow a net takeoff flight path that clears all obstacles by at least 35 feet vertically, or by 200 feet horizontally within the airport boundaries and 300 feet horizontally after passing them (121.189(d)(2)). The assumptions matter: the airplane is not banked before reaching 50 feet, and thereafter bank is limited to 15 degrees (121.189(f)) — which is why engine-out special procedures fly the published track and modest banks rather than an early turn toward downwind. "Net" means the demonstrated gradient reduced by the regulatory decrement, so the paper path sits below what the airplane should actually achieve.
What are the dispatch landing distance rules (121.195)?
No takeoff unless arrival weight allows a full-stop landing within 60 percent of the effective length of the runway from a point 50 feet above the threshold plane, at both the destination (121.195(b)) and the alternate (121.197), on the most favorable runway in still air and on the most suitable runway for the expected wind. Two modifiers: turboprop — may dispatch failing the "most suitable runway" test if an alternate is specified where it can stop within 70 percent (121.195(c)); turbojet, wet or slippery forecast — effective runway length must be at least 115 percent of the dry requirement, unless a shorter approved wet distance is in the AFM (121.195(d)).
This is a preflight gate. The separate landing distance assessment at time of arrival — and its 15 percent margin — is covered under Task III.B.
How are runway conditions reported under TALPA, and what is the RCAM (SAFO 19001)?
Airports report non-dry surface conditions using the Runway Condition Assessment Matrix, assigning Runway Condition Codes to each third of the runway — touchdown, mid-point, roll-out (AIM 4-3-9); the codes run from 6 (dry) down through 5–1 to 0 (nil), and the report includes the type and depth of contaminant when the runway is contaminated (SAFO 19001; AIM 4-3-9). Pair them with pilot braking action reports: Good, Good to Medium, Medium, Medium to Poor, Poor, and Nil — Nil meaning deceleration is minimal to non-existent or directional control uncertain. Two ATP-level points: friction (Mu) measurements are no longer used to report surface conditions because they don't correlate reliably with airplane braking performance, and a braking report is only reliable from a similar weight and class of airplane and recent enough for the conditions (SAFO 19001). Wet-runway definition: neither dry nor contaminated.
ATC offers you a land-and-hold-short clearance. What governs accepting it (AIM 4-3-11)?
LAHSO — landing and holding short of an intersecting runway, an intersecting taxiway, or another designated point. The performance gate: accept only if the PIC determines the airplane can safely land and stop within the Available Landing Distance (ALD) — published in the Chart Supplement and U.S. Terminal Procedures Publications, and available from the controller on request (AIM 4-3-11). The command points:
The PIC has final authority to accept or decline any LAHSO clearance, and pilots are expected to decline one that would compromise safety — ideally before it's issued
Once accepted, it must be adhered to like any other ATC clearance, unless amended or an emergency occurs — but it does not preclude a rejected landing
Read back the clearance in full, including “hold short of (runway/taxiway/point)” (AIM 4-3-11)
Preflight planning should already have determined which LAHSO combinations at the destination work for your required landing distance.
What should you say about the go/no-go decision itself — the RTO risk picture (AFH ch. 16)?
Ill-advised reject decisions and improper technique contribute to a majority of takeoff-related commercial aviation accidents worldwide; although only about 2 percent of rejects fall in the high-speed category, aborts above 120 knots account for the vast majority of RTO overrun accidents
The decision should be made before V1 so deceleration can begin no later than V1; if braking hasn't begun by V1, continuing is the decision by default
Delaying the maneuver one second beyond V1 adds 4 to 6 knots on average, and crews need 3 to 7 seconds to identify and execute a reject
Certified stopping data assumes ideal conditions — clean dry runway, maximum braking, no reverse-thrust credit; reality subtracts through contamination, wind, low density, worn brakes or tires, inoperative anti-skid, penalizing MEL or CDL items, and technique (AFH ch. 16)
State your operator's low-speed/high-speed reject split and who calls it — the PIC makes the continue/reject decision (AFH ch. 16).
How do holdover times work, and what happens when one expires (121.629(c))?
Holdover time is the estimated time deicing/anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost or ice and the accumulation of snow on the protected surfaces — it begins when the final application of fluid commences and expires when the fluid loses effectiveness (121.629(c)(3)). The carrier's approved ground deicing program contains the holdover timetables and procedures for adjusting HOT up or down in changing conditions. If the maximum holdover time is exceeded, takeoff is permitted only when at least one of these is true:
A pretakeoff contamination check — conducted within five minutes prior to beginning takeoff, from outside the aircraft unless the program specifies otherwise — finds the critical surfaces free of frost, ice, and snow
An approved alternate procedure makes that determination
The airplane is re-deiced and a new holdover time is established (121.629(c)(3), (c)(4))
Why the clean-wing concept exists at all: contamination disrupts the smooth airflow so the boundary layer separates at an AOA lower than the critical angle — lift is greatly reduced, and as little as 0.8 millimeter of ice on the upper wing surface increases drag and reduces lift by 25 percent (PHAK ch. 5). A contaminated wing therefore stalls earlier than a stall warning system calibrated for the clean wing expects. The underlying prohibition — no takeoff with frost, ice, or snow adhering to critical surfaces — and its one authorized exception are covered under Task II.A.
Deep Dive
From the AFM to the release: how the numbers get made
Task I.B is where the evaluator confirms you can produce performance, not just define it — the skill elements demand proficient use of the charts, tables, and data for all phases of flight (AA.I.B.S7), computing weight and balance with practical fixes for out-of-limits cases (AA.I.B.S5), and confirming CG and lateral fuel balance within limits for takeoff and landing (AA.I.B.S6).
How do air carrier weight and balance programs differ from computing W&B by hand (AA.I.B.K8; AC 120-27)?
Carriers load by approved average weights rather than weighing each occupant. Standard average passenger weights are built from CDC/NHANES survey data plus a clothing allowance — 5 pounds summer, 10 pounds winter — with summer weights usable May 1 to October 31 and winter November 1 to April 30; where no gender is given, the averages assume a 50/50 male-female split (AC 120-27, table 3-1 and para 3.2.1). Operators with seasonal variation that want one year-round number should use the winter weight, and baggage weights come from operator survey data (AC 120-27). The mechanics of shifting weight and resolving an out-of-limits CG are unchanged from the commercial computation you already know — the ATP layer is knowing that the whole system runs on approved averages, curtailed CG envelopes, and load planners, with the PIC still responsible for the result.
Why won't the airplane make the book numbers, and what do you do about it (AA.I.B.R3)?
Because certified data is a flight-test ceiling, not a line-operations average. The AFH's degradation list for stopping performance is the template answer: reduced runway friction, mechanical and natural contaminants, wind, low air density, flap and bleed configuration, underinflated or failing tires, deficient brakes or RTO auto-brakes, inoperative anti-skid, penalizing MEL/CDL items, and pilot technique and proficiency (AFH ch. 16). The certified landing distance similarly excludes reverse thrust credit (AFH ch. 16). The professional response is structural, not heroic: apply the operator's required factors, prefer conservative condition inputs, and treat any performance-credit assumption (reverse, autobrakes, grooved runway) as something you must actually deliver in the deceleration.
What determines optimum and maximum operating altitudes for a given day (AA.I.B.K2d)?
Three ceilings compete, and the lowest wins:
Certificated maximum operating altitude — an AFM limitation
Thrust-limited altitude — at high altitude little excess thrust may be available for maneuvering; it is often impossible for a jet to climb and turn simultaneously (AC 61-107, para 3-3)
Buffet-limited (aerodynamic) altitude — the margin between low-speed buffet and Mach buffet narrows with altitude and load factor: a typical jet has a 135-knot buffet-free spread at FL350 that shrinks to about 26 knots at FL450, and only 1.4 G — a 30°-bank-plus-gust kind of number — can put a heavy airplane at buffet at its optimum cruise Mach (AC 61-107, para 3-3)
So the day's optimum altitude moves with weight and temperature: burn off fuel and the buffet-limited ceiling rises, which is the logic of step climbs. Select a maximum cruising altitude that preserves buffet margin for maneuvering and expected gusts, using the type's cruise maneuver/buffet limit chart (AC 61-107). The aerodynamics behind this — coffin corner and the buffet boundaries — is Task I.D's territory, and so is descent performance (AA.I.B.K2e): the idle-descent-at-L/DMAX efficiency picture is covered there.
Task C. Weather Information (ATP)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with obtaining, understanding, and applying weather information for a flight under IFR.
References: 14 CFR part 91; AC 61-107, AC 61-138, AC 91-74, AC 91-92; AIM; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-16, FAA-H-8083-25, FAA-H-8083-28
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What actually changes about weather at the ATP level?
What changes is who decides and against what limits — the products themselves don't. METAR/SPECI, TAF, GFA, FB, AIRMETs, SIGMETs, and Convective SIGMETs (AA.I.C.K2) are the same ones covered card-by-card in the Instrument and Commercial guides. The same is true of the meteorology core in K3 — atmospheric stability, wind and windshear, temperature, moisture, air masses and fronts, clouds, thunderstorms and microbursts, fog, and frost (AA.I.C.K3a–f, h, j, k) are all built in those guides, and the ACS note warns that if K3 is selected the evaluator must assess at least three sub-elements — so refresh them there before the oral. At the ATP level:
Joint responsibility: in domestic and flag operations, the PIC and the aircraft dispatcher share responsibility for preflight planning, delay, and dispatch release (121.533(b), 121.535(b)) — your weather analysis has a professional counterpart checking the same charts
Flight monitoring: the dispatcher monitors each flight, issues information necessary for safety, and can cancel or redispatch when a flight cannot continue safely as released (121.533(c))
Minima: from operator and aircraft operational limitations — ops specs — not personal preference (AA.I.C.R1d)
Expect scenario questions where the right answer includes the phrase "and I'd be on with dispatch."
How low can the weather get before each ILS category becomes unusable for planning (IPH ch. 4)?
The planning ladder, with all required components operative (IPH ch. 4, fig. 4-41):
CAT I: DH 200 feet, RVR 2,400 (1,800 with touchdown zone and centerline lighting)
CAT II: DH 100 feet, RVR 1,200
CAT III: RVR floors fall from 700 (IIIa) to 150 (IIIb) to no DH and no RVR limitation at IIIc — which no U.S. operator has OpSpecs approval to use
The category-by-category details — including the DH-versus-Alert-Height distinction — are covered under Task VI.E. The weather-planning point this Task adds: the minimums you may plan on are not the chart's lowest line but the lowest category your OpSpecs authorize for this crew, this airframe, and the equipment working today — the trend you watch en route is measured against that number.
What authorizes a crew to fly CAT II/III, and which RVR report controls (AA.I.C.K5)?
CAT II and III require special certification for operators, pilots, aircraft, and airborne and ground equipment — the primary authorization and minimum RVRs live in OpSpecs Part C (IPH ch. 4). Details worth volunteering:
While CAT I permits substituting midfield RVR for an unavailable TDZ report, CAT II permits no substitution — the touchdown zone RVR system is required and controlling (IPH ch. 4)
The surface side is regulated too: the FAA requires an approved low visibility operations/SMGCS program for new CAT III-supported runways, with the low-visibility taxi plan applying at RVR below 1,200 feet and controllable stop bars required for operations below 500 feet RVR (IPH ch. 1 and 4) — the taxi-plan details are covered under Task II.C
What is a Flight Risk Assessment Tool, and how is it used (AA.I.C.K6)?
A structured preflight form that assigns numbers to specific risks and situations, making it easier to see when a particular flight carries a higher level of risk (PHAK ch. 2). It complements — not replaces — the continuous perceive-process-perform loop and predetermined personal minimums developed away from any pressure to fly (PHAK ch. 2). At a carrier, the FRAT's thresholds typically trigger the conversation this Task keeps pointing at: elevated score, talk to dispatch or a supervisor before the flight goes. The skill element is explicit that you should interpret the weather, apply ADM, and use a Flight Risk Assessment Tool if available (AA.I.C.S1) — so if your operator has one, walk the evaluator through its categories and what happens at each scoring band.
What does high-altitude turbulence planning look like for a transport airplane (AA.I.C.K3g)?
The margin you're protecting is aerodynamic. At cruise altitude the spread between low-speed and Mach buffet may be a couple hundred knots at FL350 but only about 26 knots at FL450 for a typical jet, and gust loading or bank can erase a 1.4 G margin entirely — so altitude selection in expected turbulence is itself a weather decision (AC 61-107, para 3-3). If a thunderstorm cannot be avoided, follow high-altitude penetration procedures and avoid over-action of the thrust levers; speed brakes can manage excessive airspeed buildup, with the caveat that when they're part of the lateral control system, deploying them may change the roll rate with lateral input (AC 61-107, para 3-3). The full coffin-corner story is Task I.D.
Volcanic ash and the other visibility obstructions — where does the information come from (AA.I.C.K3l)?
Three channels, each worth naming:
SIGMETs (WS) — the non-convective advisories that cover volcanic ash, along with severe icing not associated with thunderstorms, severe or extreme turbulence or CAT, and dust storms or sandstorms lowering surface or inflight visibility below three miles; valid 4 hours (6 for hurricanes) (PHAK ch. 13)
ASHTAM — the NOTAM issued for an operationally significant change in volcanic ash or other dust contamination (PHAK ch. 1)
METAR coding — present-weather code VA for volcanic ash (PHAK ch. 13)
The operational posture for a jet crew is avoidance and routing — ash is a dispatch-level planning problem before it is ever an inflight one, which is why it appears in the ATP task rather than as a light-airplane concern.
Who decides about icing on a part 121 flight, and when (121.629(a))?
Both of you, at every phase: no person may dispatch or release, continue en route, or land when in the opinion of the pilot in command or aircraft dispatcher (domestic and flag), icing conditions are expected or met that might adversely affect the safety of the flight (121.629(a)). Note the standard — might adversely affect — is lower than "exceeds certification." Freezing-level products and structural icing theory are covered in the Instrument guide; the ground-icing program, holdover times, and the pretakeoff contamination check are under Tasks I.B and II.A. What this Task adds is the decision architecture: either seat can stop the flight for ice, before or during.
How should you use flight deck weather displays to maneuver around weather (AA.I.C.K4, R2)?
As a planning aid with known failure modes, not ground truth — the ACS explicitly tests equipment limitations alongside use, and that is the evidence the evaluator wants. State the limits before the strategy:
Datalink (FIS-B/NEXRAD): latency and mosaic limitations are covered in the Commercial guide's weather task and carry over unchanged — strategic, not tactical
Installed equipment — weather radar, predictive windshear, turbulence detection: the honest oral answer is your AFM/FCOM's operating procedures and your operator's deviation SOPs — what the display actually senses and what it cannot see
Deviation coordination: heading change agreed, PM works the ATC request, dispatch advised if the reroute is significant, per the joint-responsibility structure of 121.533
Deep Dive
Departure and in-flight decision making, carrier style
The risk elements of this Task (AA.I.C.R1) are the ones that generate scenario questions: circumstances requiring a change of course or destination, known or forecast icing, winds or turbulence aloft, volcanic ash, and destination weather. The recurring theme in every good answer is that operational control is shared — analysis yours, limits from ops specs, and the dispatcher on the other end of the ACARS.
Mid-flight, destination weather is trending below minimums. Walk the decision (AA.I.C.R1a).
Structure the answer around the shared-responsibility machinery rather than raw stick-and-rudder judgment:
Re-gather — latest METAR/SPECI and trend, TAF amendments, PIREPs, and the RVR values that actually control your approach category (IPH ch. 4)
Compare against authorization — the minima that matter are the OpSpecs values for the approach you can fly with the equipment working right now, not the chart's lowest line (IPH ch. 4)
Confer — the dispatcher is monitoring the flight and holds joint responsibility; either of you can conclude the flight cannot continue safely as released, and the dispatcher can redispatch you to the alternate with amended fuel and weather analysis (121.533(c))
Decide with the fuel — the release was built to reach destination, most distant required alternate, plus reserve (121.639, covered under Task I.E); the moment holding erodes that plan, the decision timeline compresses
The examiner is listening for the reflex of bringing dispatch in early — silence until minimum fuel is the classic ATP-oral failure mode.
Do personal weather minimums still exist at the ATP level (AA.I.C.R1c)?
Yes — as the conservative inner ring inside the regulatory ones. The ACS keeps personal weather minimums as a risk element even for ATP applicants, and the PHAK's guidance still applies: set them in a non-flying environment, before any pressure to make a specific trip exists, so they serve as a clear reference point for go/no-go and continue/discontinue decisions (PHAK ch. 2). At a carrier they express themselves differently — as the judgment margin you apply inside OpSpecs limits: electing the autoland when you're legal to hand-fly, taking the extra fuel when the TAF's PROB30 looks generous, declining the visual at night into terrain. The strong oral answer names a specific case where your minimums are tighter than what's legal, and why.
Task D. High-Altitude Aerodynamics (ATP) (AMEL, AMES)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with high altitude airplane aerodynamics.
References: AC 61-107, AC 61-138, AC 120-111; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-25 · Applies to: AMEL, AMES
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What is Mach number, and what governs the speed of sound (AC 61-107)?
From the pilot's viewpoint, Mach is the ratio of the aircraft's true airspeed to the local speed of sound. At sea level on a standard day (15 °C), the speed of sound is approximately 660 knots; Mach .75 there equals a TAS of roughly 498 knots. The speed of sound is directly related only to temperature — as the atmosphere cools with altitude, the speed of sound decreases, up to about 36,000 feet MSL where the standard temperature lapse stops (AC 61-107, paras 3-2a and 3-2b(2)). That single fact drives most of this Task: a colder, higher sky means any given TAS is a higher Mach number.
Explain the IAS–TAS–Mach relationship as you climb (AA.I.D.K3).
Two effects run in opposite directions:
IAS falls away from TAS — an airplane's indicated airspeed decreases in relation to TAS as altitude increases, because of reduced air density; to hold the same lift coefficient, AOA must increase with altitude for the same calibrated airspeed (AC 61-107, paras 3-2b(5) and 3-3c(3))
Mach rises against TAS — the low temperatures aloft decrease the speed of sound, so for a given TAS, Mach number is significantly higher at altitude than at sea level; compressibility effects arrive at slower indicated speeds up high (AC 61-107, para 3-3b(2))
Practically: climb at constant indicated and your Mach climbs toward the limit; that's why the climb transitions from an IAS schedule to a Mach schedule, and descent does the reverse. The result of the squeeze — slow-speed problems and Mach problems arriving at the same time — is the next card.
What is coffin corner (AC 61-107)?
Coffin corner is the point where high-speed Mach buffet, IAS, and the low-speed buffet boundary merge: the airplane's absolute or aerodynamic ceiling. It forms because IAS decreases with altitude toward the low-speed buffet boundary (prestall buffet at 1.0 G) while Mach buffet arrives at ever-lower indicated speeds. There, the aircraft can neither go faster without activating the stick puller at the Mach limit, nor slower without activating the stick shaker or pusher — encountering this critical envelope region can end in loss of control (AC 61-107, para 3-2b(5)). Note the trap in the definition: the aerodynamic ceiling can sit above the AFM's certificated altitude limit, but maneuvering or turbulence effectively lowers it toward you.
Give the buffet-margin numbers that make the load factor point (AA.I.D.K4).
AC 61-107's worked example:
At 51,000 feet and 1.0 G: a typical turbojet might meet Mach buffet slightly above its MMO of 0.82 and low-speed buffet at 0.60 Mach — a comfortable spread
At 1.4 G — an increase of just 0.4 G — buffet can come on at the optimum cruise speed of 0.73 Mach, and any change in airspeed, bank, or gust loading can reduce that 1.4 G protection to none
Altitude trend: a 1.0 G buffet-free margin of 135 knots at FL350 shrinks to about 26 knots at FL450 (AC 61-107, para 3-3c(5))
Increasing either gross weight or G raises the low-speed buffet speed and lowers the Mach buffet speed simultaneously (para 3-2b(6)) — the corner closes from both sides. Hence the requirement: pick cruise altitude from the cruise maneuver/buffet limit chart, with margin for maneuvering and gusts.
What causes Mach tuck (AA.I.D.K1)?
Two factors, principally:
Shock-wave-induced flow separation — normally beginning near the wing root, it decreases downwash velocity over the elevator and produces a nose-down tendency
Aft movement of the center of pressure — the CG ends up farther ahead of the aerodynamic center than in subsonic flight, dramatically increasing the nose-down pitching tendency (AC 61-107, para 3-2b(1))
Supersonic flow over the wing is responsible for the package deal: shock waves (drag rise), the aft lift shift (Mach tuck), and airflow separation behind the shocks (Mach buffet) (para 3-3c(4)). The nose-down moment steepens the dive and accelerates you further past the limit — which is why the Mach compensating stick puller exists and must never be disabled in normal operations (para 3-2b(3); see Task I.A for the systems side).
What happens if you let the airplane get past VMO/MMO (AA.I.D.K6)?
AC 61-107's sequence for intentional or accidental excursions beyond the certificated maximum operating limit speed (para 3-2b):
Possible onset of aerodynamic flutter
Excessive G-loading in maneuvering
Induced flow separation over the ailerons and elevators, potentially followed by physical loss of a control surface
Aileron buzz or snatch, coupled with Mach tuck
Catastrophic loss of the airplane
The convergence point of this Task: at high altitude, VMO (a structural/indicated limit) and MMO (a compressibility limit) converge with the stall AOA boundary, so both the fast edge and the slow edge of the envelope are closer than the flight deck feels. Respecting the barber pole up high is respecting a margin measured in tens of knots, not hundreds.
How does a swept wing behave differently from a straight wing (AA.I.D.K1)?
Why sweep exists: sweeping the wing raises the critical Mach number — airflow travels over an effectively different cross-section with less effective camber, reducing the acceleration of flow over the wing and allowing a higher speed before critical Mach (AC 61-107, para 3-3a(3))
Lift behavior: a straight wing builds lift steeply with AOA and then stalls abruptly with rapid lift deterioration; the swept wing produces a much more gradual buildup of lift (para 3-3a(6)) — which sounds benign but means degraded low-speed cues and deep AOA excursions
Stall pattern: swept-wing stalls begin at the tips (AFH ch. 16) — outboard, behind the CG, aggravating pitch-up tendencies
Fixes on the airframe: vortex generators and boundary-layer energizers delay shock-induced separation and permit a higher MMO (AC 61-107, para 3-3a(5))
What is Dutch roll, and what keeps it damped (AA.I.D.K1)?
A coupled oscillation in roll and yaw that becomes objectionable when roll (lateral) stability is reduced in comparison with yaw (directional) stability. When it's objectionable or affects certification control-stability requirements, a stability augmentation system is required; the yaw damper — a gyro-operated autocontrol providing rudder input — cancels the yaw tendencies (AC 61-107, para 3-3c(3)(a)). The altitude connection: reduced air density at high altitude reduces aerodynamic damping and overall stability, so jets at high altitude and high Mach can simultaneously experience slow-speed problems like Dutch roll, adverse yaw, and stall (para 3-3c(3)). Know your type's answer for a yaw damper failure at altitude — typically an altitude restriction from the AFM.
Why does altitude capability depend on weight and temperature (AA.I.D.K5)?
Because the ceilings that matter are margins, and both weight and temperature eat margins:
Thrust: jets cruise at altitudes where operation is close to rpm or EGT limits — little excess thrust may be available for maneuvering, and it is often impossible to climb and turn simultaneously; all maneuvering must fit within available thrust (AC 61-107, para 3-3b(1)). A hot day moves you closer to those limits
Buffet: higher weight raises the 1.0 G low-speed buffet boundary and narrows the corner (para 3-2b(6)), so the buffet-limited altitude falls as weight rises — and recovers as fuel burns off, which is the step-climb logic covered under Task I.B
Efficiency: the reason to be up there at all — specific fuel consumption decreases as outside air temperature decreases, so high altitude is where fuel economy and cruise speed are best (para 3-3b(1))
What is L/DMAX, and why does it organize speed control at altitude (AA.I.D.K7, K8)?
L/DMAX is the minimum-drag speed: flying faster than it requires more power, and — the counterintuitive half — flying slower than it also requires more power (AFH ch. 5). Below L/DMAX the airplane sits on the backside of the power curve with speed instability: a disturbance that slows the airplane increases drag, which slows it further (AFH ch. 5). At high altitude, where excess thrust is already thin (AC 61-107, para 3-3b(1)), a slowdown below optimum speed can leave the airplane unable to hold both altitude and speed — the "high altitude slow-down" the risk elements name (AA.I.D.R3). L/DMAX is also the efficiency anchor: the smoothest, most fuel-efficient descent is idle thrust at L/DMAX (AFH ch. 16), and best-range and best-endurance speeds for your type are AFM/FMS numbers keyed off this same drag curve.
Deep Dive
Energy state, upsets, and getting the recovery right
The remaining knowledge elements — energy management (AA.I.D.K2) and the factors contributing to high-altitude upsets and their prevention and recovery (AA.I.D.K9) — are where this Task connects to the extended envelope training you'll do in the simulator (121.423; see Area V for the stall-specific half).
What officially counts as an airplane upset (AC 120-111)?
An airplane in flight unintentionally exceeding the parameters normally experienced in line operations or training:
Pitch attitude greater than 25° nose up
Pitch attitude greater than 10° nose down
Bank angle greater than 45°
Or within those parameters but at airspeeds inappropriate for the conditions (AC 120-111, para 1-6a)
That last clause is the high-altitude one — wings level, pitch normal, and 20 knots slow at FL410 is a developing upset by definition, because the airplane is diverging from the intended flightpath (AC 120-111's "developing upset condition," para 1-6e). The prevention emphasis follows: recognize the energy divergence before the attitude ever moves.
What are the high-altitude upset traps, and what does the recovery guidance emphasize (AA.I.D.K9, R3)?
The setup is everything this Task has covered: thin thrust margins, narrow buffet spreads, reduced aerodynamic damping, and automation quietly trading speed for altitude until the airplane is behind the power curve (AC 61-107, para 3-3; AFH ch. 5 speed instability). On the recovery side, AC 120-111's warnings for the oral:
Manage the energy state and the rate at which it is changing — it determines how much maneuvering capability you have (AC 120-111, ch. 4)
For nose-high recoveries, pilots are instructed to push to achieve less than 1 G (AC 120-111, app. 1)
Rudder is still effective at high AOA — and that is exactly why special care is required: guard against control reversals, and avoid rapid full-scale reversals of control deflections to maintain structural integrity (AC 120-111, app. 1). The rudder-reversal discussion continues under Task I.E
Excessive use of pitch trim or rudder may aggravate the upset (AC 120-111, ch. 4 warnings)
Expect the scenario question as a slowdown at cruise: the correct first move is trading altitude for energy early — a descent you choose beats a stall recovery you don't.
Task E. Air Carrier Operations (ATP) (AMEL, AMES)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with air carrier operations.
References: 14 CFR parts 25, 121; AC 00-46, AC 61-138, AC 91.21-1, AC 91-78, AC 120-51, AC 120-66, AC 120-76, AC 120-82, AC 120-90, AC 120-101; AFM; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-25 · Applies to: AMEL, AMES
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What is operational control, and who exercises it in each kind of part 121 operation (AA.I.E.K9)?
The certificate holder is always responsible for operational control; who shares the working authority depends on the kind of operation:
Domestic and flag: the PIC and the aircraft dispatcher are jointly responsible for preflight planning, delay, and dispatch release (121.533(b), 121.535(b))
Supplemental: the PIC and the director of operations are jointly responsible for initiation, continuation, diversion, and termination; the DO may delegate the functions but not the responsibility, and everyone authorized to exercise operational control must be listed in the operations manual (121.537(a), (b))
In every kind, during flight time the PIC is in command of the aircraft and crew and responsible for the safety of passengers, crewmembers, cargo, and airplane, with full control and authority over other crewmembers without limitation — whether or not the PIC holds their certificates (121.533(d), (e)).
Dispatch release versus flight release — what's the difference?
The difference is who authorizes: a dispatch release comes from a certificated aircraft dispatcher (domestic and flag), while a supplemental flight release has no dispatcher behind it. The machinery:
Domestic: no person may start a flight unless an aircraft dispatcher specifically authorizes it; the exception is an intermediate stop named in the original release lasting not more than one hour (121.593)
Flag: dispatcher authorization required, and a new dispatch is required to continue from an intermediate airport after more than six hours on the ground (121.595)
Supplemental: there is no dispatcher — a flight release is executed by the PIC or the person the operator authorized to exercise operational control, and the PIC may sign only when both believe the flight can be made with safety; a new release is needed after more than six hours at an intermediate airport (121.597)
The certificated-dispatcher system is what distinguishes scheduled 121 operations from everything else you've flown; contents of the release itself are covered under Task II.A.
What does the dispatcher do for you after takeoff (121.533(c))?
Three duties, verbatim from the reg — the dispatcher is responsible for:
Monitoring the progress of each flight
Issuing necessary information for the safety of the flight
Cancelling or redispatching a flight if, in the dispatcher's opinion or the opinion of the pilot in command, it cannot operate or continue safely as planned or released (121.533(c); same structure for flag under 121.535(c))
Note the "or": either seat's opinion is sufficient to stop the plan. The emergency-case split — including the dispatcher's authority to declare when unable to communicate with the PIC, and the 10-day written reports — is covered under Task VII.A.
What fuel must a domestic 121 flight carry (121.639)?
Enough fuel to:
Fly to the airport to which it is dispatched
Then fly to and land at the most distant alternate (where an alternate is required)
Then fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption (121.639)
That's the domestic formula — flag and supplemental have their own international variants built around a 10-percent en route contingency and holding requirements, so identify which rule set your operation uses. The release is built on this math, which is why en route holding or a reroute immediately becomes a dispatch conversation (121.533(c); see Task I.C for the weather-diversion decision flow).
When are oxygen masks required at the flight deck of a turbine 121 airplane (AA.I.E.K5; 121.333)?
Above FL250: each flight crewmember on duty must be provided a mask designed for rapid donning; one pilot at the controls must wear and use a mask — unless each crewmember has a quick-donning mask (donnable with one hand within five seconds), in which case wear is not required at or below FL410 for airplanes with more than 30 passenger seats or more than 7,500 pounds payload (at or below FL350 for the smaller category) (121.333(c)(1), (c)(2))
Above FL410: if one pilot leaves the controls, the remaining pilot puts on and uses the mask until the other returns (121.333(c)(3))
Crew supply: above 10,000 feet, at least a two-hour supply — defined as the quantity for a constant-rate descent from max certificated altitude to 10,000 feet in ten minutes, followed by 110 minutes at 10,000 feet (121.333(b))
Preflight: each crewmember personally preflights their oxygen equipment before takeoff (121.333(c)(4))
What causes cabin pressure loss, and how do you recognize which kind you have (AA.I.E.K6)?
Decompression is the inability of the pressurization system to maintain its designed pressure differential — caused by a system malfunction or structural damage (PHAK ch. 7). Physiologically it splits two ways:
Explosive decompression — cabin pressure changes faster than the lungs can decompress (authorities treat anything under 0.5 second as explosive); potential lung damage
Rapid decompression — the lungs decompress faster than the cabin (PHAK ch. 7)
Recognition cues: noise, momentary daze, cabin fog from the temperature and humidity drop, dust and flying debris, air rushing from mouth and nose (PHAK ch. 7). Rapid decompression reduces effective performance time by one-third to one-fourth because the oxygen in your lungs is exhaled rapidly — the reason quick-donning masks and immediate crew response exist (PHAK ch. 7). The emergency descent itself, the TUC numbers, and the memory-item response are covered under Task VII.A; the system mechanics are under Task I.A.
An ATC instruction and a TCAS resolution advisory conflict. What do you do (AA.I.E.K4)?
Follow the RA. RAs are vertical maneuvers, so an RA and a turn instruction can coexist — the IPH makes the split explicit in its simultaneous close parallel (PRM) breakout guidance: if the climb or descend instruction differs from the RA, follow the RA while continuing to follow the controller's turn instruction, and report the deviation to ATC as soon as practical (IPH ch. 4). The system logic backs this up: TCAS II analyzes the projected flightpath of approaching aircraft and issues resolution advisories, and when the other aircraft is also TCAS II-equipped, the two systems coordinate their resolution advisories (IFH ch. 5) — an opposite-direction maneuver by one crew defeats the coordination for both. Know your type's RA guidance display and your operator's callouts, and note the NTSB reporting hook for certain RAs under 49 CFR 830 (Task I.G).
How does a terrain warning system know to warn you, and what's the crew response (AA.I.E.K4)?
Two generations, one discipline:
GPWS watches radio altitude, speed, landing gear status, flap position, and ILS glideslope deviation for unsafe operation relative to terrain — excessive descent rate, excessive closure with terrain, unsafe clearance while not configured to land, glideslope deviation — and provides advisory callouts. It's typically wired to the hot bus so it can't be inadvertently switched off; the IFH recounts a turboprop crew that ignored and tried to disable a valid warning, gear-up on final (IFH ch. 5)
TAWS adds GPS position against a terrain and obstruction database for true predictability ahead of the aircraft, with aural and visual warnings instructing specific action, compensating for aircraft performance and speed (IFH ch. 5)
The response expectation the ACS is probing (AA.I.E.R3): treat a warning as valid and act on it — the accident record is crews explaining away the box.
What is rudder reversal, and why is it singled out for transport airplanes (AA.I.E.K7)?
It's the sequence of large, alternating rudder inputs — and the guidance exists because rudder control remains effective at high AOA, so special care is required in its use during upset prevention and recovery: guard against control reversals, and avoid rapid full-scale reversal of control deflections to maintain structural integrity (AC 120-111, app. 1). The same AC's recovery templates carry the standing warning that excessive use of pitch trim or rudder may aggravate an upset (AC 120-111, ch. 4). Note what the AC's structural-integrity language implies: the danger is not one large input but the reversal — alternating full deflections build loads the airframe was never required to withstand. Fly roll with ailerons and spoilers; use rudder smoothly, and never in rapid opposite cycles.
What are operations specifications, and how do they bind you (AA.I.E.K14)?
OpSpecs are the FAA-issued document set that turns the certificate into a specific, bounded operation:
Issued for each kind of operation and each class and size of aircraft (119.1(b)(2))
A carrier may not operate in a geographic area unless its ops specs specifically authorize it (119.5(j))
No one may operate in violation of the ops specs (119.5(l))
"Kind of operation" is itself a defined term — domestic, flag, supplemental, commuter, or on-demand, as specified in the ops specs (110.2). You met OpSpecs Part C as the source of your CAT II/III authority in Task I.C; how they constrain a specific preflight is exercised under Task II.A. For the oral, be able to name two or three concrete things your OpSpecs authorize that plain part 121 would not.
What is ASAP, and why would you file a report (AA.I.E.K13)?
The Aviation Safety Action Program: under an FAA-accepted memorandum of understanding, employees of participating carriers voluntarily report safety issues to management and to the FAA for resolution — including events that may involve apparent violations (AC 120-66).
Review: each accepted report goes to an Event Review Committee (FAA, company, and labor representatives) that reviews the event and recommends corrective action; the ERC has discretion on timeliness and acceptance based on the best interest of safety (AC 120-66)
Incentive: the FAA assures no enforcement action will be used to address apparent violations reported under the program, unless specifically excluded — and since October 1, 2015, administrative actions are not processed for accepted ASAP reports (AC 120-66, paras 9–10)
Purpose: generating safety enhancements from data the FAA would otherwise never see
Deep Dive
Crew coordination — the discipline the whole area assumes
Several K-elements of this Task are exercised elsewhere and shouldn't be re-memorized here: turbine engine and reverser malfunctions under Tasks I.A and II.B, sterile flight deck and runway incursion prevention at complex airports under Task II.C, and automation/FMS management under Tasks I.A and I.C. What remains is the crew layer itself.
What does CRM actually consist of, per the FAA (AA.I.E.K12)?
CRM is the effective use of all available resources — human resources, hardware, and information — with training focused on situation awareness, communication skills, teamwork, task allocation, and decisionmaking within a comprehensive framework of SOPs (AC 120-51). Points the AC emphasizes that fit ATP oral questions:
Crew monitoring and cross-checking: the pilot monitoring's role is critical — monitoring matters most during approach and landing, where CFIT accidents are most common (AC 120-51)
Briefings are a core CRM behavior, expanded to cover safety and security concerns (AC 120-51); the AFH frames the captain's briefing before takeoff as an essential part of CRM procedures (AFH ch. 16)
CRM lives inside SOPs, and its central concept is communication, supported by a culture that encourages it (AC 120-51)
Parallel programs exist for the rest of the operation — dispatch resource management for aircraft dispatchers is required just as CRM is for pilots and flight attendants (AC 120-51)
What does professionalism mean as a tested item for an ATP applicant (AA.I.E.K11)?
Two concrete anchors keep this from being a platitude question:
The regulation puts the weight on you personally: during flight time the PIC has full control and authority in the operation of the aircraft, without limitation — and correspondingly is responsible for the safety of the passengers, crewmembers, cargo, and airplane (121.533(d), (e)). Leadership is the job description, not a virtue
The training footprint is mandated: the ATP certification training program requires at least six hours of instruction on leadership, professional development, crew resource management, and safety culture (61.156(a)(4))
Good oral answers translate these into behavior: running disciplined briefings, inviting and acting on FO/PM challenges, protecting sterile-flight-deck compliance, using the safety-reporting systems (ASAP above), and making the conservative call visibly and early. Threat and error management — recognizing threats, trapping errors before they become undesired aircraft states — is the framework your operator's program will attach to all of it (AA.I.E.K13).
Task F. Human Factors (ATP)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with personal health, flight physiology, and aeromedical and human factors related to safety of flight.
References: AC 60-22, AC 61-107, AC 61-138, AC 120-51, AC 120-100; AIM; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-25
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
How is human factors tested differently at the ATP level?
What's new at ATP is the layer around the physiology — the aeromedical fundamentals (AA.I.F.K1's twelve sub-elements, hypoxia through scuba nitrogen) are the same material covered card-by-card in the Commercial guide's human factors task, and the evaluator must assess at least three sub-elements if K1 is selected (FAA-S-ACS-11A, Task I.F note). The ATP layer:
Fatigue stops being advice and becomes part 117 law, with a required reporting and affirmation system
ADM becomes CRM in a crew (AA.I.F.K3) — resource management with two pilots, cabin crew, and a dispatcher
The risk elements go cognitive: distractions, task prioritization, loss of situational awareness (AA.I.F.R3) and confirmation and expectation bias (AA.I.F.R4)
Build answers that start from the commercial-level physiology and end with what the crew system does about it.
How does part 117 define fatigue, and what system does it build around that definition (AA.I.F.K1h)?
Fatigue: a physiological state of reduced mental or physical performance capability resulting from lack of sleep or increased physical activity that can reduce a flightcrew member's alertness and ability to safely operate an aircraft or perform safety-related duties (117.3). The system around it:
Fitness for duty is regulatory — you may not accept a flight duty period if too fatigued, the carrier may not let you continue once you've reported it, and every crewmember affirmatively states fitness for duty as part of the dispatch or flight release (117.5; the self-assessment mechanics are covered under Task II.A)
Education is mandatory — every certificate holder runs an approved fatigue education and awareness training program, annually, for crews, dispatchers, schedulers, and their management, updated every two years (117.9)
FRMS — a fatigue risk management system is a data-driven, systematic method to continuously monitor and manage fatigue risk in the operator's specific operations (117.3)
What is the window of circadian low, and why should your personal scheduling respect it (AC 120-100)?
Part 117 defines the WOCL as 0200–0559 during a physiological night (117.3). The science behind it: people on a normal routine have two periods of maximum sleepiness — roughly 3 a.m. to 5 a.m., when physiological sleepiness is greatest and performance capability lowest, and again roughly 3 p.m. to 5 p.m. (AC 120-100). Circadian rhythms are driven by an internal biological clock and entrained by light and social cues; operating against them — night work, shift work, jet lag — is the "circadian challenge" (AC 120-100).
This is why FDP limits in Table B are shortest for report times in the early morning hours (Task I.G carries the tables), and why the afternoon window is the sanctioned nap opportunity on augmented operations.
What does sleep debt do, and how do you actually pay it back (AC 120-100)?
Sleep loss is cumulative: shorten sleep across consecutive days and the debt builds, aggravated by extended duty days (AC 120-100). Two findings worth quoting:
Recovery is not hour-for-hour — studies show recovery from accumulated debt requires deliberately extended sleep; crews should be trained to use recovery periods to sleep more than their usual amount to prevent debt building across an extended schedule (AC 120-100)
Impairment from fatigue may be severe, last from minutes to hours, and can persist right through a nap or sleep period taken too late (AC 120-100)
The regulatory backstops exist to protect the opportunity: a rest period of at least 10 consecutive hours immediately before an FDP, which must provide at least 8 uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity — and if you determine it won't, you must notify the carrier and cannot report until you receive a compliant rest period (117.25(e), (f)).
What fatigue countermeasures does the FAA actually endorse (AC 120-100)?
The one with the strongest evidence is the nap: short naps of 25–30 minutes have beneficial effects on alertness, and controlled studies showed napped pilots performed measurably better than un-napped ones — which is why crew augmentation to permit napping outside the cockpit is a viable fatigue countermeasure under current FAA rules (AC 120-100). Strategy notes from the AC:
The afternoon secondary WOCL is a relatively good time for a brief nap
Scheduled sleep can aggregate a major sleep period plus a nap and still restore performance
Naps have limits — even after a 3-hour morning nap, evening performance runs about 10 percent below what it would be on a normal schedule (AC 120-100)
Pair the physiology with the regulatory tools: the rest notification of 117.25(f) and the fitness-for-duty gate of 117.5 are the countermeasures with teeth.
CRM, DRM, SRM — sort out the acronyms (AA.I.F.K3)?
CRM — crew resource management: effective use of all available resources (human, hardware, information), trained around situation awareness, communication, teamwork, task allocation, and decisionmaking within SOPs; required for part 121 pilots and flight attendants (AC 120-51)
DRM — dispatch resource management: the same discipline required for aircraft dispatchers (AC 120-51) — a reminder that your crew includes the person who signed your release
The ACS asks for ADM "using CRM or SRM, as appropriate" (AA.I.F.K3) — at the ATP practical in a crew airplane, appropriate means CRM, and your worked examples should involve delegating, cross-checking, and verbalizing rather than solo mental math.
How does a crew defend against confirmation and expectation bias (AA.I.F.R4)?
The crew's defense is CRM behaviors that force contrary evidence into the open — the biases survive by keeping it unspoken, so the countermeasures are structural (the definitions and single-pilot picture are in the Commercial guide):
Monitoring and cross-checking as a defined duty: AC 120-51 elevates the pilot monitoring's role precisely because approach and landing — where expectation runs strongest — is where CFIT accidents are most common (AC 120-51)
Verbalization within SOPs: communication is the central CRM concept, and a culture in which every level of management promotes it is what makes a challenge speakable (AC 120-51)
Briefings that pre-commit: a briefed bottom line — stabilized gates, required calls, missed approach triggers — converts "I expected it to work out" into a detectable deviation (AC 120-51; AFH ch. 16 captain's briefing)
A strong oral answer gives one personal example: a time the other pilot's callout broke your expectation loop, or vice versa.
Deep Dive
The self-assessment, crew edition
The skill element is a single line — perform a self-assessment and determine fitness for flight (AA.I.F.S1) — but at this certificate it has a paper trail and a second seat attached.
Perform the ATP fitness-for-flight self-assessment out loud.
Run the same IMSAFE inventory you've used since private — illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, emotion/eating (PHAK ch. 2) — then add the three ATP-specific layers:
The affirmation: your conclusion becomes a formal act — each flightcrew member affirmatively states fitness for duty as part of the dispatch or flight release (117.5(d); exercised under Task II.A)
The fatigue gate: if the honest answer on the F is no, the regulation removes the discretion — you may not accept the FDP, and the carrier may not assign it (117.5(b))
The crew dimension: fitness is mutual. You are assessing the other pilot too, and CRM's monitoring role begins at the briefing table — degraded crewmember performance is a threat to be named and managed, not politely ignored (AC 120-51)
Alcohol, drugs, and OTC medication rules (AA.I.F.K2) carry over unchanged from the commercial-level cards; the operational difference is that carrier drug and alcohol programs and the release paperwork make the honest self-report the only survivable strategy.
How do hazardous attitudes and distraction risks play out in a crew flight deck (AA.I.F.R2, R3)?
The five hazardous attitudes and their antidotes (PHAK ch. 2) don't disappear with a second pilot — they get social. Anti-authority sounds like briefing around an SOP; machismo sounds like hand-flying a CAT II to prove a point; resignation sounds like a first officer who stops challenging. The crew-level defenses:
Task prioritization and distraction management are regulated during critical phases: the sterile flight deck rule exists because nonessential conversation at low altitude is a documented killer (121.542; exercised under Task II.C)
Leadership training is mandated — six hours on leadership, professional development, CRM, and safety culture in the ATP-CTP (61.156(a)(4)) — because the captain sets whether challenges are welcome
Loss of situational awareness is answered by the monitoring/cross-checking discipline of AC 120-51: defined PM duties, deviation callouts, and briefed gates
For each attitude, the examiner wants the crew-context antidote: not just "I recognize invulnerability in myself," but "our SOPs make the PM's callout mandatory, and I acknowledge it every time so the next one comes."
Task G. The Code of Federal Regulations (CFR) (ATP)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge associated with regulations applicable to the privileges and limitations of the ATP certificate and to flight operations that require an ATP certificate.
References: 14 CFR parts 61, 91, 111, 117, 121, 135; 49 CFR part 830; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-25
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
Map the regulatory environment for an ATP. Which parts govern what?
Part 61, subparts A, B, G — your certificate: eligibility, privileges, and the ATP-specific rules (61.151–61.171)
Part 91 — the floor under everything; subparts A, B, C, F, G, H are the ACS scope (AA.I.G.K2)
Part 110 — the definitions (kinds of operations) that decide which operating part applies
Part 119 — certification of air carriers and commercial operators: which certificate, which operating rules, which ops specs
Part 117 — flight and duty limitations and rest for flightcrew (AMEL/AMES applicants)
Part 121 — scheduled air carrier operating rules; part 135 — commuter and on-demand (the ASEL/ASES scope)
Part 111 — the Pilot Records Database
49 CFR part 830 — NTSB notification and reporting
The skill element is applying them to a scenario (AA.I.G.S1): given an operation, name the governing part and the specific section that decides the question.
Define the kinds of operations — domestic, flag, supplemental, commuter, on-demand (110.2).
Domestic: scheduled operations with turbojets, airplanes over 9 passenger seats, or over 7,500 pounds payload, between points within the 48 contiguous states/DC (or entirely within a state, territory, or possession) (110.2)
Flag: same airplane sizes, scheduled, between a point in the 48 contiguous states/DC and any point outside the 48 states/DC — including Alaska and Hawaii — between Alaska/Hawaii/a territory and a point outside it, or between two foreign points (110.2). The trap: JFK–Anchorage and LAX–Honolulu are flag, not domestic
Supplemental: common carriage where departure time and locations are specifically negotiated with the customer — charter — with more than 30 seats or 7,500 pounds payload, plus all-cargo and part 380 public charters (110.2)
Commuter: scheduled, at least five round trips per week on at least one route, with non-turbojet airplanes of 9 seats or fewer and 7,500 pounds payload or less (110.2)
On-demand: the unscheduled remainder for compensation or hire (110.2)
Per 119.21: domestic, flag, and supplemental operate under part 121; commuter and on-demand under part 135.
Air Carrier Certificate versus Operating Certificate (119.5)?
A person authorized to conduct operations as a direct air carrier — common carriage — is issued an Air Carrier Certificate (119.5(a))
A U.S. commercial operator not authorized as a direct air carrier gets an Operating Certificate (119.5(b))
Only one certificate is issued for common carriage under parts 121/135, regardless of kinds of operations or aircraft flown (119.5(d))
No one may operate without, or in violation of, the certificate and appropriate operations specifications (119.5(g), (l)), operate in a geographic area not authorized in the ops specs (119.5(j)), or advertise an operation they aren't authorized to conduct (119.5(k))
A direct air carrier also needs economic authority from the Department of Transportation (119.5(i)) — the FAA certificate covers safety; DOT covers the commerce
What are the eligibility requirements for an ATP certificate (61.153)?
Be at least 23 years old (or 21 for the restricted-privileges certificate under 61.160)
Read, speak, write, and understand English
Be of good moral character
Hold a commercial pilot certificate with an instrument rating (or qualifying military or ICAO foreign equivalents)
For an airplane multiengine class rating (or ATP concurrent with a multiengine type rating): present a graduation certificate from an ATP certification training program (ATP-CTP) before taking the knowledge test (61.153(e))
Pass the knowledge test (61.155(c) areas) and the practical test, and meet the aeronautical experience of subpart G (61.153(f)–(h))
What aeronautical experience does 61.159 require for ATP airplane?
At least 1,500 hours total time as a pilot, including:
500 hours cross-country
100 hours night — with a substitution: beyond 20 night full-stop landings, each additional one credits one hour of night time, up to 25 hours (61.159(b))
50 hours in the class of airplane for the rating (up to 25 creditable in a full flight simulator as part of an approved 121/135/141/142 course)
75 hours instrument time, actual or simulated (simulator/FTD credit capped at 25 hours, or 50 in a part 142 course)
250 hours PIC — or SIC performing PIC duties under supervision — including 100 hours cross-country and 25 night (61.159(a)(5))
Overall FSTD ceiling: not more than 100 hours of the total toward the requirement (61.159(a)(6))
SIC time in approved part 135 professional development programs and certain flight-engineer time can also credit toward the totals (61.159(c), (d)).
What is the restricted-privileges ATP, and who qualifies (61.160)?
The R-ATP lowers the 1,500-hour requirement for the airplane multiengine rating (and the age to 21):
750 hours — current or former U.S. military pilots who graduated from a UPT school
1,000 hours — holders of a bachelor's degree with an aviation major plus 60 aviation credit hours from an institution with a 61.169 letter of authorization, with commercial/instrument training under the school's part 141 program
1,250 hours — the associate's degree version with at least 30 aviation credit hours, or bachelor's graduates with 30–59 credit hours
All paths require only 200 hours cross-country instead of 500 (61.160(e))
The certificate carries the limitation "Restricted in accordance with 14 CFR 61.167" — the holder may not act as PIC in part 121 operations (or 91.1053(a)(2)(i)/135.243(a)(1) operations) until meeting 61.159 experience and age 23, and may not serve as SIC in flag or supplemental operations requiring three or more pilots (61.167(b), 61.160(g)).
What is the ATP-CTP, and what does it contain (61.156)?
The prerequisite training program for the multiengine ATP knowledge test, completed with an authorized 121/135/141/142 provider:
30 hours of academics, at minimum (61.156(a)):
8 hours — aerodynamics, including high-altitude operations
2 hours — meteorology
14 hours — air carrier operations: physiology, communications, checklist philosophy, operational control, MEL/CDL, ground operations, turbine engines, transport category performance, automation/navigation/flightpath warning systems
6 hours — leadership, professional development, CRM, and safety culture
10 hours of FSTD training: at least 6 hours in a Level C or higher full flight simulator representing a multiengine turbine airplane of 40,000 pounds MTOW or greater, covering low-energy states/stalls, upset recovery, and adverse weather; the remainder in a Level 4+ device on FMS navigation and automation (61.156(b))
Notice the syllabus is essentially a table of contents for this Area of Operation — the FAA built the course from the same material this guide covers.
What are the privileges and instructional limits of the ATP certificate (61.167)?
An ATP holds the same privileges as a commercial pilot with an instrument rating (61.167(a)(1)) — plus the signature air-carrier privilege: an ATP who meets the full experience and age requirements may instruct other pilots in air transportation service in aircraft of the category, class, and type for which the ATP is rated, and endorse their training records (61.167(a)(2)). Limits on that instruction:
Not more than 8 hours in any 24-consecutive-hour period, nor 36 hours in any 7-consecutive-day period (excluding briefings and debriefings) (61.167(a)(3))
No instructing in Category II or III operations unless trained and tested in them (61.167(a)(4))
In aircraft, only with functioning dual controls (61.167(a)(2)(iv))
A separate flight instructor certificate is still what authorizes ordinary subpart-H instruction outside air transportation service (61.167(a)(2)(iii)).
What certificates and experience does part 121 require of its pilots (121.436)?
Every pilot — PIC and SIC — must hold an ATP certificate and an appropriate aircraft type rating for the airplane flown; an SIC type rating obtained under 61.55 doesn't satisfy this (121.436(a), (b))
The PIC must additionally hold an unrestricted ATP (not subject to 61.167 limitations) and have 1,000 hours as: SIC in part 121 operations, PIC in 91K fractional operations (91.1053(a)(2)(i)), PIC in 135.243(a)(1) operations, PIC in eligible on-demand operations, or any combination (121.436(a)(3))
500 hours of military PIC time in multiengine turbine fixed-wing/powered-lift aircraft in multi-pilot operations may credit toward the 1,000 (121.436(c))
The parallel thresholds elsewhere: 91K fractional multiengine turbine PICs need an ATP and 1,500 hours (91.1053), and 135 PICs of turbojets or airplanes with 10 or more passenger seats need an ATP (135.243(a)(1)).
Give the part 117 limits — flight time, FDP, cumulative, and rest.
Flight time (unaugmented, Table A): maximum 9 hours for report times 0500–1959, 8 hours for 0000–0459 and 2000–2359; augmented: 13 hours (3 pilots) or 17 hours (4 pilots) (117.11(a))
FDP (unaugmented, Table B): 9 to 14 hours, driven by acclimated report time and number of segments — maximum 14 for 1–2 segments reporting 0700–1159, bottoming at 9 for the WOCL report times; reduce by 30 minutes if not acclimated (117.13). Augmented FDPs (Table C) run up to 19 hours for a 4-pilot crew with a Class 1 rest facility
Cumulative: 100 flight hours in any 672 consecutive hours, 1,000 hours in any 365 days; FDP totals capped at 60 hours in 168 and 190 in 672 (117.23(b), (c))
Rest: at least 10 consecutive hours immediately before FDP, with 8 hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity — you must notify the carrier if it won't be — plus 30 consecutive hours free from duty in the preceding 168 (117.25)
Exceeding limits for unforeseen circumstances after takeoff is permitted to land safely, with a report to the FAA within 10 days (117.11(b), (c))
How do the part 135 limits differ (ASEL/ASES scope — 135.243, 135.267)?
Part 135 keeps the older flight-time architecture for unscheduled one- and two-pilot crews:
Daily: total flight time in any 24 consecutive hours not exceeding 8 hours for a single pilot, 10 hours for a two-pilot crew (135.267(b))
Quarterly/annual: 500 hours per calendar quarter, 800 in two consecutive quarters, 1,400 per calendar year (135.267(a))
Rest: each assignment must provide at least 10 consecutive hours of rest in the 24 hours preceding planned completion; exceeding daily limits for reasons beyond the operator's control drives graduated rest of 11, 12, or 16 hours (135.267(d), (e)); plus 13 rest periods of at least 24 consecutive hours each calendar quarter (135.267(f))
PIC qualifications: an ATP certificate is required to serve as PIC in passenger operations of turbojets, airplanes with 10 or more passenger seats, or multiengine airplanes in commuter operations (135.243(a))
When must you immediately notify the NTSB (49 CFR 830.5)?
After any aircraft accident, and after these serious incidents — the air-carrier-relevant ones especially:
Flight control system malfunction or failure
Required crewmember unable to perform normal flight duties from injury or illness
Turbine engine failure with escape of debris other than out the exhaust
In-flight fire; aircraft collision in flight; property damage over $25,000
For large multiengine aircraft (over 12,500 pounds): sustained reliance on emergency bus or sole remaining hydraulic system, loss of thrust on two or more engines, and evacuation using an emergency egress system
Loss of information from more than 50 percent of cockpit displays (EFIS/EICAS/ECAM)
An ACAS/TCAS resolution advisory issued on an IFR flight plan when compliance was necessary to avert a substantial risk of collision
An air carrier that lands or departs on a taxiway or incorrect runway, or a runway incursion requiring immediate corrective action (830.5(a))
An aircraft overdue and believed to be in an accident (830.5(b))
The formal report on Form 6120.1/2 is due within 10 days of an accident (7 days for a still-missing overdue aircraft); incident reports only if requested (830.15).
Deep Dive
Definitions that decide 830 questions, and the PRD
Define accident, serious injury, and substantial damage (49 CFR 830.2).
Aircraft accident: an occurrence between the time any person boards with the intention of flight until all have disembarked, in which any person suffers death or serious injury or the aircraft receives substantial damage
Serious injury: hospitalization more than 48 hours starting within 7 days, fracture of any bone (except simple fractures of fingers, toes, or nose), severe hemorrhage or nerve/muscle/tendon damage, internal organ involvement, or second/third-degree burns or burns over more than 5 percent of the body
Substantial damage: damage adversely affecting structural strength, performance, or flight characteristics, normally requiring major repair or replacement — explicitly excluding engine failure limited to one engine, bent fairings, dented skin, small punctured holes, ground-damaged props, and damage to gear, wheels, tires, flaps, brakes, or wingtips
Fatal injury: death within 30 days of the accident (830.2)
These definitions are the whole game on 830 scenario questions: a blown tire and damaged flap on landing is neither serious injury nor substantial damage — an incident, reportable only if it hits an 830.5 trigger.
What is the Pilot Records Database, and who does part 111 touch (AA.I.G.K7)?
The PRD is the FAA's electronic database of pilot records, and part 111 prescribes the rules governing its use (111.1(a)). It applies to (111.1(b)):
Every part 119 certificate holder operating under 121, 125, or 135
Fractional ownership program managers under 91 subpart K
Air tour operators holding a 91.147 letter of authorization
Certain part 91 corporate operators of type-rated airplanes and turbine rotorcraft
Public aircraft entities, their bankruptcy trustees
Each person employed as a pilot by, or seeking employment as a pilot with, any of them
That last clause is why the ACS assigns subparts A and D to you: the pilot is a regulated party in the system, not just its subject. Practical takeaway for the oral: training and employment events at a carrier become professional records that follow you between employers.
Which part 91 rules should an ATP applicant have on recall (AA.I.G.K2)?
The ATP oral revisits the interplay between part 91 and the carrier rules — the part 91 corpus itself (currency, equipment, airspace, IFR rules) is covered in depth in the Instrument and Commercial guides:
91.3 still makes the PIC directly responsible and the final authority, and its emergency deviation power persists under 121 — but with the carrier overlay of 121.557's reporting and the dispatcher's parallel duties (Task VII.A)
Part 91 is the floor: persons subject to part 119 must comply with the rest of the chapter except where part 119, 121, 125, or 135 modifies or adds requirements (119.1(c)). Where both speak, the stricter carrier rule governs your operation
The ACS scope adds subparts F, G, and H — the rules for large and turbine-powered airplanes and operations outside the U.S. Part 119 itself points into that territory: 119.1(a)(3) excepts operations conducted under 91.501(b) from the certification requirement, which is where part 91 subpart F's regime for large and turbine-powered airplanes begins — so know where subpart F applies to the airplane you fly
The efficient study move: for each scenario, ask "what would part 91 allow, and which 117/121/135 rule takes it away?"
Task H. Water and Seaplane Characteristics, Seaplane Bases, Maritime Rules, and Aids to Marine Navigation (ASES, AMES)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with water and seaplane characteristics, seaplane bases, maritime rules, and aids to marine navigation.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What do you assess about a water surface before committing to it (AA.I.H.K1)?
I work outside-in:
Size, location, and protection — protected water shelters you from wind and swell; unprotected areas add both
Surface wind and waves — read direction and strength from the water itself; wave systems have direction and height, and a swell system encountered on the step can itself initiate porpoising (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4)
Current — it's stronger than intuition suggests: a 5-knot current can carry the seaplane against a 25-knot wind (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4), so plan taxi and sailing with both vectors
Debris, sandbars, islands, and shoals — floating and partially submerged hazards, plus depth
Vessel traffic and wakes — a boat wake crossed on the step can trigger skipping (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4)
The AMES layer: with two engines you also have differential power to aid steering on the water (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4), which changes your taxi options in wind.
What is porpoising, and how do you stop it (AA.I.H.K3, S2)?
Porpoising is a rhythmic pitching motion caused by dynamic instability in forces along the float bottoms while on the step — an incorrect planing attitude sets off a cyclic oscillation that steadily increases in amplitude unless the proper pitch attitude is reestablished. Nose too low builds a water crest under the bows that the floats ride over and dig into again; nose too high can also porpoise, or cause a premature lift-off at extreme AOA, stall, and a nose-down drop (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4).
Correction:
Apply timely back pressure and hold it until the porpoising stops
If it hasn't stopped by the second oscillation: power to idle, elevator control held firmly back, and let the seaplane settle with no further instability
Never chase the oscillations — that makes them worse (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4)
Limits shift with gross weight, flap position, and CG — a forward CG increases the chance of high-angle porpoising, especially during landing (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4).
What is skipping, and how is it different (AA.I.H.K3, S2)?
Skipping is instability from landing at excessive speed with the nose at too high a pitch angle — at the upper trim limit the seaplane enters a cyclic oscillation on touching the water and bounces across the surface like a skipped stone. It can also occur crossing a boat wake while taxiing on the step or during takeoff.
Telling them apart by feel: a skip gives vertical G forces like a bounced landplane landing; porpoising is a rocking-chair, forward-and-aft motion.
Correction: increase back pressure and add sufficient power to keep the floats off the water, establish the proper pitch attitude, then reduce power gradually and settle on.
Skipping oscillations don't grow in amplitude the way porpoising does, but they pound the floats and airframe — and can lead to porpoising (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4).
How does float and hull construction drive performance on the water (AA.I.H.K2, S1)?
Through drag and its phases:
Displacement (at rest and idle taxi): buoyancy carries the weight and the wetted area — the float surface below the waterline — is the drag driver; heavier means deeper means more wetted area
Plowing: hydrodynamic lift raises the bows while the aft floats dig deeper, and water drag peaks at "the hump" just before the planing attitude
The step: the specially shaped forward float bottom converts motion into hydrodynamic lift, wetted area shrinks, and acceleration to lift-off becomes possible without additional power (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4)
Hull differences matter to handling too: with the engine shut down, most flying boats sail backward and toward wherever the nose points, because a hull gives proportionally less keel effect than floats (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4).
How do you find seaplane bases and their restrictions, and identify them at night (AA.I.H.K4, K5, S3)?
Charts: seaplane landing areas use symbols like land airports with an anchor in the center; tick marks mean fuel and services, a double ring means military (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 1)
Directories: the Chart Supplement lists data on record with the FAA for all open-to-the-public airports, seaplane bases, and heliports (AFH glossary) — including services and operating restrictions
At night: the rotating beacon for a lighted water landing area alternates white and yellow; a double white flash alternating with yellow marks a military seaplane base (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 1)
Restrictions extend onto the water itself: when circling the landing area, note buoys marking preferred channels, hidden dangers, or off-limits areas such as no-wake zones and swimming beaches (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6). Services at many bases are minimal, which the ACS flags as its own risk (AA.I.H.R4).
What are the right-of-way rules on the water (AA.I.H.K6, S7; 91.115)?
General: keep clear of all vessels insofar as possible and avoid impeding their navigation; give way to anything with the right-of-way
Crossing: the aircraft or vessel to the other's right has the right-of-way
Head-on: each alters course to the right
Overtaking: the one being overtaken has the right-of-way; the overtaking craft keeps well clear
Special circumstances: when risk of collision exists, proceed with careful regard for circumstances including the limitations of the respective craft (91.115)
And the jurisdiction point examiners like: under Coast Guard regulations a seaplane on the water is a vessel — inshore of the demarcation line you follow the Inland Rules, seaward of it the International Rules, and all seaplanes must carry a current copy of the rules when operating in international waters (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 1).
Describe naval vessel protection zones and no-wake zones (AA.I.H.K8, K9, S5).
Both bind you because a seaplane on the water is a vessel:
Naval vessel protection zone — a 500-yard regulated area of water surrounding any large U.S. naval vessel (greater than 100 feet in length), in effect whether the vessel is underway, anchored, moored, or in a floating dry dock (33 CFR 165.2015, 165.2025, 165.2030). Within the zone, operate at the minimum speed necessary to maintain a safe course and proceed as directed by the Coast Guard, the senior naval officer present in command, or the official patrol; no vessel or person may come within 100 yards of the naval vessel unless authorized — request authorization on VHF-FM channel 16
No-wake zones — locally designated areas, marked by buoys, where vessels must hold to a minimum speed that produces no wake — typically near docks, marinas, and swimming areas. For a seaplane that means displacement (idle) taxi through them: step taxi throws a wake. Note them while circling the landing area, along with other off-limits areas (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6)
Decode the marine navigation aids (AA.I.H.K7, S4).
The U.S. buoyage system is built for vessels running channels to and from the sea, so read it from seaward:
Can buoys — cylindrical, black or green, odd-numbered, mark the left (port) side of the channel approaching from seaward
Nun buoys — conical, red, even-numbered, mark the right side: "red, right, returning" to home port
Black and white vertically striped buoys mark the middle of the channel or fairway
Daybeacons — the shallow-water equivalent, markers on pilings
Numbers increase from seaward toward the coast; only the more important buoys are lighted (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 1)
Practical caution: the mooring chain may be several times the water depth, so the buoy can float a good distance from its charted spot and from the hazard it marks — don't cut close to one (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 1). Nautical charts come from NOAA's Office of Coast Survey, and Coast Guard light lists describe the lighted aids (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 1).
Area II. Preflight Procedures
Task A. Preflight Assessment
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with preparation for safe flight.
References: 14 CFR parts 43, 61, 63, 71, 91, 97, 117, 119, 121, 135; AC 120-27, AC 120-60, AC 135-17, AIM, FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-23, FAA-H-8083-25, FAA-H-8083-28; POH/AFM
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What does 'pilot self-assessment' mean at the ATP level (117.5)?
At this certificate it stops being a private checklist and becomes a regulatory act under part 117:
You must report for any flight duty period rested and prepared to perform your assigned duties (117.5(a))
The carrier may not assign — and you may not accept — a flight duty period if you've reported too fatigued to safely perform (117.5(b))
Once you report yourself too fatigued, the carrier may not let you continue the FDP (117.5(c))
As part of the dispatch or flight release, each flightcrew member must affirmatively state he or she is fit for duty prior to commencing flight (117.5(d))
That last one is the answer the examiner is fishing for: signing the release is your self-assessment, on the record. The IMSAFE-style personal inventory you've used since private pilot is how you back the signature up.
What conditions make it legal to take off in a part 121 airplane with inoperative equipment (121.628)?
All of the following:
An approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that airplane
The operations specifications authorize operations in accordance with the MEL, and the flight crew has direct access at all times prior to flight to all the information in it
The MEL provides for operation with those items inoperative
Records identifying the inoperative instruments and equipment — and the required MEL information — are available to the pilot
The airplane is operated under all applicable conditions and limitations in the MEL and the ops specs (121.628(a))
One phrase worth quoting: an approved MEL "constitutes an approved change to the type design without requiring recertification" (121.628(a)(2)). You are legally flying a slightly different airplane, which is why the conditions and limitations attach.
What can never go on an MEL (121.628(b))?
Three categories:
Instruments and equipment required by the airworthiness requirements under which the airplane was type certificated and which are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions
Items an airworthiness directive requires to be operable, unless the AD provides otherwise
Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by part 121
The escape hatch: an airplane whose inoperative item falls under the first or third category may still be moved under a special flight permit under 21.197 and 21.199 — 121.628(c) says "notwithstanding paragraphs (b)(1) and (b)(3)," so an AD-grounded item gets no ferry relief unless the AD itself provides it. A ferry flight, not a revenue flight.
What's the difference between the MEL and the CDL?
The MEL addresses inoperative instruments and equipment — failing internal systems and their parts; the CDL (Configuration Deviation List) is used the same way but addresses missing external parts of the aircraft.
AFH ch. 16's CDL examples: service doors, power receptacle doors, slat track doors, landing gear doors, APU ram air doors, flap fairings, nose-wheel spray deflectors, position light lens covers, slat segment seals, static dischargers. Both can carry performance penalties, and both must be acknowledged before you compute takeoff data — the AFH's rejected-takeoff discussion lists "penalizing MEL or CDL items" among the factors that degrade stopping performance.
A discrepancy is deferred under the MEL. Walk through what actually happens before you push.
The deferral is documented, placarded, and time-limited (AFH ch. 16):
The MEL entry may impose conditional requirements — operational, mechanical, or both — such as precautionary preflight checks, partial repairs, or isolating and securing parts of the affected system
Required procedures are flagged "O" (operations) or "M" (maintenance) — the letter tells you whose job the compliance step is
An authorized person makes an entry in the MEL Deferral Record and issues a temporary placard, affixed onto or next to the affected instrument or control to remind the crew of the limitations
The deferral authorizes operation for a limited time before permanent repair
Your job at the flight deck (AA.II.A.S3): confirm the placard, the O-procedures, and the operational limitations — and be able to explain how the deferral changes today's flight.
When does the MEL stop applying?
At liftoff. AFH ch. 16 is explicit: the MEL applies only while the aircraft is on the ground awaiting departure or takeoff — it is essentially a dispatching reference. Once airborne, mechanical failures are handled with the appropriate checklists and the approved AFM (abnormal/emergency sections), not the MEL. You may look at the MEL in flight for background, but actions are based strictly on the AFM. The distinction matters in the oral: an item that would ground the airplane at the gate does not require an emergency response to the same failure in cruise.
What is a dispatch release, and what must it contain (121.687)?
The document by which a domestic or flag flight legally exists. Under 121.593, no person may start a domestic flight unless an aircraft dispatcher specifically authorizes it (exception: an intermediate stop specified in the original release, on the ground not more than one hour). The release may be in any form but must contain at least:
Aircraft identification number and trip number
Departure airport, intermediate stops, destination airports, and alternate airports
A statement of the type of operation (e.g., IFR, VFR)
Minimum fuel supply
For ETOPS flights, the ETOPS diversion time for which the flight is dispatched (121.687(a))
It must also contain or attach the latest available weather reports and forecasts for destination, intermediate stops, and alternates as of the time the release is signed by the pilot in command and dispatcher (121.687(b)) — the signature line where your preflight assessment and the dispatcher's meet.
What information must the dispatcher provide you before and during the flight (121.601)?
All available current reports or information on airport conditions and irregularities of navigation facilities that may affect the safety of the flight
Before the flight: all available weather reports and forecasts of weather phenomena that may affect the safety of flight — the reg names clear air turbulence, thunderstorms, and low altitude wind shear — for each route to be flown and each airport to be used
During the flight: any additional available information of meteorological conditions and irregularities of facilities and services that may affect safety
This is why the ATP preflight-assessment conversation is about a shared system, not a solo brief: dispatch is regulatory obligated to feed you, and joint responsibility runs through the release you both signed.
How do operations specifications constrain your preflight assessment (119.5)?
Ops specs are the fine print on the certificate. Under 119.5, no person may:
Operate as an air carrier without, or in violation of, an appropriate certificate and appropriate operations specifications (119.5(g))
Operate in a geographical area unless the ops specs specifically authorize it (119.5(j))
Operate in violation of the ops specs (119.5(l))
Practically, they're also where your MEL authority lives (121.628(a)(2)). The skill element (AA.II.A.S5) expects you to identify and comply — know where in your operator's manuals the ops specs paragraphs relevant to today's flight sit (deicing program, lower-than-standard minimums, ETOPS), and check the airplane and route against them.
What are the requirements for current and appropriate navigation data?
Airborne navigation databases run on a 28-day revision cycle (IPH ch. 6)
Pilots using the databases are ultimately responsible for ensuring the database they are operating with is current — including checking NOTAM-type information on database errors supplied by the avionics manufacturer or database provider (IPH ch. 6)
Part 121, 125, and 135 operators must update databases in accordance with their approved maintenance program (IPH ch. 6) — loading the data is a maintenance function, but confirming the cycle's effective dates on the flight deck is a crew item
Naming conventions and system capabilities vary by manufacturer, so cross-check the loaded procedure against the chart before you rely on it (IPH ch. 6)
It snowed overnight. What does 121.629(b) prohibit, and what's the one authorized exception?
Prohibited: taking off when frost, ice, or snow is adhering to the wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces — the clean aircraft concept.
The one exception: takeoffs with frost under the wing in the area of the fuel tanks may be authorized by the Administrator (121.629(b)).
The preflight-assessment piece (AA.II.A.S7) is ensuring surfaces are free of ice, snow, and frost and knowing the deicing procedures if conditions demand them — the holdover-time and pretakeoff-check machinery is covered under Task II.E, where the ACS puts it.
Deep Dive
The crew preflight — same walkaround, different system
The airplane inspection itself (AA.II.A.K4) is the discipline you've had since private pilot; what changes at this level is who does what and what backs the inspection up. The skill elements make the crew dimension explicit: inspect in accordance with an appropriate checklist and coordinate the checklist with crew (S1), and coordinate with ground crew and ensure adequate clearance prior to moving doors, hatches, flight control surfaces (S2).
How does the preflight inspection change when there's a crew and a maintenance organization behind the airplane?
The inspection is divided and proceduralized rather than reduced:
The walkaround and flight deck setup are split between crewmembers per the operator's checklist, and the check is coordinated — each pilot must know which items belong to whom (AA.II.A.S1)
Nothing gets moved — doors, hatches, flight control surfaces — without coordinating with ground crew and confirming clearance (AA.II.A.S2); people and equipment live around a transport airplane in ways they don't around a trainer
What you find goes into the system: document any discrepancies, take corrective action, and acknowledge the limitations imposed by MEL/CDL deferrals (AA.II.A.S3). At a carrier, "corrective action" means the logbook and maintenance control, not a screwdriver
The output is still a single judgment call: the aircraft is airworthy and in condition for safe flight (AA.II.A.S4) — and the PIC owns it regardless of how many people touched the airplane first
What preventive maintenance may a pilot perform, and what documentation does it require?
Preventive maintenance is simple or minor preservation operations and the replacement of small standard parts, not involving complex assembly operations, limited to the items listed in part 43, appendix A(c) (PHAK ch. 9). Any pilot who performs it must make a maintenance record entry: a description of the work, the date of completion, and the pilot's name, signature, certificate number, and type of certificate (PHAK ch. 9). The ATP framing for the oral (AA.II.A.K3): know the authority exists and what it covers, and then explain that in air carrier operations the practical answer to a discrepancy is the maintenance program and maintenance control — not the crew — with the MEL/CDL as the deferral instrument.
Deferrals under examiner pressure
The scenario the evaluator will actually run (AA.II.A.R2): something is broken, the passengers are boarding, and the question is what you do next.
At the gate you find an inoperative item not yet in the logbook. Talk me through the decision.
Write it up. An undocumented discrepancy is not a deferral — the MEL process starts with the entry (AA.II.A.S3)
Consult the MEL with maintenance control: is the item deferrable, in what quantity, with what O and M procedures, and with what operational limitations (AFH ch. 16)
Confirm the deferral is executed — Deferral Record entry, placard on or next to the affected control (AFH ch. 16)
Trace the operational consequences before you accept the airplane: performance penalties, weather or equipment restrictions, and any interaction with today's route — an MEL/CDL penalty is on the AFH's list of factors that degrade rejected-takeoff stopping performance
Then decide whether the airplane is in condition for safe flight for this flight (AA.II.A.S4). The MEL makes the flight legal; it does not make it wise on every day the deferral is technically available
The external-pressure risk element (AA.II.A.R4) lives in this scenario: the schedule leans on the deferral decision, and the fit-for-duty signature you gave under 117.5(d) is the same signature that accepts this airplane.
Environment and the shared assessment
Dispatch built the flight plan and the release. What environmental assessment is still yours?
All of it — dispatch shares the work, not the accountability. The dispatcher must give you airport conditions, facility irregularities, and hazardous weather for every route and airport (121.601), and the release carries the latest weather when you sign it (121.687(b)). Your side (AA.II.A.K5, S6): assess weather, airports, airspace, terrain, and obstructions against this airplane, this deferral list, and this crew. The ACS also names aviation security concerns as a risk element (AA.II.A.R5) — at a carrier that means following your operator's security procedures and treating anything anomalous around the airplane or its servicing as a stop-and-resolve item, not a keep-the-push-moving item.
Where do you verify the aircraft documents and required inspections in a part 121 operation?
The same documents you've always confirmed — airworthiness and registration certificates, operating limitations and manuals, weight and balance data (AA.II.A.K2) — plus the carrier overlay: the MEL/CDL and its deferral record, and the dispatch release as the required documentation for the operation (AA.II.A.K2e names it directly). Inspection status in a 121 operation is tracked by the operator's maintenance program, so the flight-deck check is confirmation the paperwork on board matches the airplane: deferral placards agree with the release, and nothing on the release surprises the crew. If the release says one thing and the logbook says another, that conflict is resolved before the airplane moves.
Task B. Powerplant Start
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with powerplant start procedures.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
Why is a turbine start the most temperature-critical moment of the whole flight?
Because engine temperatures get hotter during starting than at any other time, and a turbine engine cannot tolerate an over-temperature for more than a very few seconds without serious damage (AFH ch. 15). That's why turbine engines have minimum rotational speeds for introducing fuel into the combustion chambers during startup — fuel before sufficient airflow means heat with nothing to carry it away. After light-off, the heat rise happens very quickly: temperatures may approach the maximum in a matter of 2 or 3 seconds before the engine stabilizes and falls into the normal range. Vigilant monitoring of temperature and acceleration is the pilot's whole job until the engine is stable, with a hand ready to cut off fuel (AFH ch. 15).
Define a hot start. What's often your first clue, and what's the response?
A hot start is an engine tendency to exceed maximum starting temperature limits (AFH ch. 15) — a start with normal rotation but exhaust temperature beyond prescribed limits (AFH glossary). The causes: too much fuel entering the combustion chamber or insufficient turbine rpm (PHAK ch. 7).
First clue: it may come before the gauge peaks — the temperature rise may be preceded by unusually high initial fuel flow (AFH ch. 15).
Response: cut off fuel promptly — serious engine damage occurs if the hot start is allowed to continue. And it isn't over when the engine is shut down: any time an engine has a hot start, refer to the AFM or maintenance manual for inspection requirements (PHAK ch. 7). A hot start you don't write up is a hot section someone else inherits.
Define a hung start, and name its usual causes.
A hung (false) start is a normal light-off with rpm remaining at some low value rather than increasing to normal idle — the engine is accelerating more slowly than normal and stabilizes at an rpm that won't sustain itself without the starter (AFH ch. 15 and glossary). Usual causes: an insufficient starting power source (low battery, weak ground power) or the starter not turning the engine fast enough, and PHAK adds a possible fuel control malfunction (PHAK ch. 7). The response is to shut the engine down (PHAK/AFH glossary) — an engine hung below idle is running hot at low airflow, which is the hot-start mechanism waiting to happen.
Why does the battery's condition matter so much before a battery start?
Because voltage is temperature margin. When battery voltage is low, its ability to turn the compressor for engine start is greatly diminished, and the possibility of engine damage due to a hot start increases — which is why the AFH says to check the battery's condition before every engine start (AFH ch. 15). Successful starting depends on assuring the correct minimum battery voltage before initiating start, or employing a ground power unit (GPU) of adequate output (AFH ch. 15). A marginal battery isn't a reason to try anyway and watch the gauges harder — it's the decision point for external power.
What are your start power sources, and how do APU and external power fit in (AA.II.B.K1)?
Type-dependent — which is exactly what the knowledge element wants you to say before you say anything else. The building blocks:
Starter/generators — in turboprops the DC generator doubles as the starter motor, using electrical power to crank and then producing power once running (AFH ch. 15)
A ground power unit (GPU) — a small gas turbine that provides electrical power and/or air pressure for starting, connected when needed; "similar to an aircraft-installed auxiliary power unit" (AFH glossary)
An APU — the installed equivalent, giving you the same electrical/pneumatic start capability without ground equipment
External power is especially valuable for cold weather starting, and the rule is always the manufacturer's: follow the AFM procedures for engine starting using a GPU (PHAK ch. 7). Know for your type which sources can start which engine, and the associated limits — those numbers live in the AFM, not in this guide.
What does ground crew coordination look like around a powerplant start (AA.II.B.K4, S1, S2)?
A closed communication loop through all three phases the ACS names — before start, start, and after start (AA.II.B.S1):
Before start: confirm with ground crew the area is clear of personnel, vehicles, FOD, and other aircraft (AA.II.B.R4), doors and hatches closed, external power connected or ready to disconnect as required
Start: signal the start — intercom or standard hand signals — and turn on the rotating beacon whenever an engine is running (AC 120-74, exterior-light guidance), so the ramp has the same cue you do
After start: confirm start-source disconnection and stowage, chocks as briefed, and a clear salute/handoff before the airplane moves
The skill elements are blunt about the standard: use appropriate ground personnel (S2), and complete the appropriate checklists prior to and after start, coordinated with the crew (S3).
What makes the ramp around a running jet dangerous in ways a propeller airplane never taught you?
There's no propeller to indicate visually whether the engine is running — and even at idle, a jet engine is a threat from both ends: enough air is being drawn into the intake to pull a nearby person into the fan, and the exhaust is hot and moving fast enough to blow a person down (AFH ch. 16). It scales up with thrust: adding too much power to start moving can pull damaging debris off the ground and the jet blast can damage equipment well behind the aircraft (AFH ch. 16). This is the substance of the propeller-and-turbine-safety risk element (AA.II.B.R2) — brief it as two hazard zones, front and back, that exist whenever the beacon is on.
How does FOD get into an engine on the ramp, and what does the preflight look for?
Some engine inlets form a vortex between the ground and the inlet during ground operations — a vacuum-cleaner effect — which is why vortex dissipaters, screens, or deflectors may be installed (PHAK ch. 7). Typical foreign object damage is small nicks and dents in the compressor and turbine sections from ramp debris, but ingestion can destroy an engine outright (PHAK ch. 7). Preflight procedures therefore include a visual inspection for any sign of FOD — both the inlet and the pavement around it. During start and taxi, the mitigation is the crew's eyes plus ground crew reports: debris, loose equipment, and unsecured items near the start area are a stop-the-start item (AA.II.B.R4).
Deep Dive
Start malfunctions and the decision to abort
The risk element behind every abnormal start (AA.II.B.R1) is the same: heat accumulating faster than your recognition. Train the responses as a small decision table, because the start is one of the few phases where you choose when it begins and can always choose to end it.
Run the abnormal-start decision table: what are you watching, and what triggers an abort?
During every start you're monitoring temperature and acceleration against the AFM's limits (AFH ch. 15). The triggers:
Fuel flow unusually high at light-off — precursor to a hot start; be ready on the cutoff (AFH ch. 15)
Temperature rising toward the starting limit — cut off fuel; do not ride it and hope (AFH ch. 15)
RPM stops accelerating below idle — hung start; shut down (PHAK/AFH glossary) and investigate the start source (PHAK ch. 7)
No light-off — fuel in a hot engine with no flame is its own hazard; end the attempt and follow the AFM's procedure before another try
After any abnormal start, the write-up matters as much as the response: a hot start carries AFM/maintenance-manual inspection requirements (PHAK ch. 7), and the associated limitations (starter duty cycles, motoring procedures) are type-specific AFM material (AA.II.B.K3).
The malfunction you get isn't in the QRH. What's the framework (AA.II.B.R3)?
Stop the start — fuel off, start source safed, brakes set — and get maintenance involved. The ACS deliberately asks how you manage situations where specific instructions or checklist items are not published, and on the ground during start the conservative move is nearly always available and nearly always right: nothing about a parked airplane requires improvisation. The regulatory backstop if a genuine emergency does develop is 91.3(b): in an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the PIC may deviate from any rule of part 91 to the extent required. But the honest answer for a start malfunction is that you should never need it: the airplane isn't going anywhere, so time is on your side — use it, and don't invent procedures around engine limits.
Crew choreography before and after start
How is the start checklist actually run in a two-pilot flight deck (AA.II.B.S3)?
As a coordinated sequence, not a solo recitation:
Before start: the flow is completed, then the checklist confirms it — with the ground crew's clearance received before anything turns
During start: one pilot commands and sequences the start; both monitor the engine indications, because the abort triggers (temperature, acceleration, fuel flow) need eyes that aren't also on the overhead panel
After start: the after-start flow and checklist, ground equipment disconnected and confirmed, and only then the taxi phase begins
AC 120-74 carries this into the next phase: complete as many checklist items as possible before initial taxi — once the aircraft is clear of equipment and personnel — so that taxi attention goes outside. The standard the evaluator applies is simple: no phase's checklist bleeds into the next phase's attention.
What changes about start and early ground operation in a turboprop (AA.II.B.K2)?
The starter/generator does double duty, so electrical system status is start-system status (AFH ch. 15)
Heat sensitivity is identical to a jet's — minimum rotational speed before fuel, light-off temperature spike in 2–3 seconds, and the same hot-start consequences (AFH ch. 15)
After start, a split-shaft/free turbine engine's power output lags several seconds behind power lever movement — anticipate and lead power changes rather than chasing them (AFH ch. 15)
Ground handling adds the beta range: aft of flight idle the power lever directly controls blade angle down into reverse; operating there requires the specific techniques, parameters, and limitations of your airplane (AFH ch. 15)
"Starting under various conditions" (AA.II.B.K2) — cold soak, hot ambient, tailwind on the ramp, battery vs. external — is where the AFM's supplementary procedures live; know where they are and which apply today.
Task C. Taxiing (ASEL, AMEL)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with safe taxi operations.
References: 14 CFR parts 91, 121, 135; AC 91-73, AC 120-57, AC 120-74; AIM; Chart Supplements; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-25; NOTAMs; POH/AFM · Applies to: ASEL, AMEL
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What belongs in the taxi briefing before the airplane moves (AA.II.C.K6)?
Per AC 120-74, the pretaxi planning conversation covers:
The expected taxi route — reviewed on the current airport diagram — including any hold short lines and runways to cross, and hot spots and complex intersections along it
The anticipated duration of the taxi and the visibility along the route
When the checklists get run: if conditions permit, conduct predeparture checklists at the gate — including setting takeoff flaps — or while stopped or taxiing straight ahead on a taxiway without complex intersections or hot spots
Critical locations where verbal PIC/SIC coordination is required: hot spots, runway crossings, entering and lining up on the runway
Single-engine taxi, if applicable, and any unusual procedures at this airport — different pushback, communication requirements, previous experience worth sharing
In low visibility: the low visibility taxi chart and ILS critical area holds
The AC's caution is worth quoting to the examiner: the pitfall of pretaxi planning is setting expectations and then receiving different instructions — fly the clearance you actually received, not the one you briefed (AA.II.C.R2).
What is a hot spot, and where do you find them?
ICAO's definition, via the Instrument Procedures Handbook: a location on an aerodrome movement area with a history or potential risk of collision or runway incursion, and where heightened attention by pilots and drivers is necessary. They flag complex or potentially confusing taxiway geometry — the intersections that have already caught crews. They're depicted as circled areas on airport charts and included with the airport diagrams in the Chart Supplement (IPH ch. 1; PHAK ch. 14 shows them labeled "HS1" style). The briefing standard: identify every hot spot on or near your taxi route by name before taxi, and treat each one as a slow-down-and-confirm point.
How do NOTAMs figure into taxi planning, and what if your clearance conflicts with one?
NOTAM review: before taxi, check the current airport NOTAMs and ATIS for runway and taxiway closures, construction activity, and other airport-specific risks (AC 120-74).
Clearance conflict: ATC is assumed to have firsthand knowledge of runway and taxiway status, but if a clearance is received to use a runway or taxiway that a NOTAM or ATIS broadcast indicates is closed, query the controller for verification of the clearance (AC 120-74).
The NOTAM review pairs with the current airport diagram, hot spots, and — where published — the textual description of standard taxi routes to build the "big picture" of the airport and its potential incursion areas before the airplane ever moves.
Define a runway incursion and its four severity categories.
The FAA definition (IPH ch. 1): "Any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and takeoff of aircraft." The categories:
Category A — a serious incident in which a collision was narrowly avoided
Category B — separation decreases with significant potential for collision, which may require a time-critical corrective or evasive response
Category C — an incident with ample time and/or distance to avoid a collision
Category D — incorrect presence on the protected area with no immediate safety consequences
Note what the definition doesn't require: no near-miss, no traffic. A single aircraft nosewheel over a hold line with nobody around is an incursion.
What does 121.542 require during taxi, and what counts as a critical phase of flight?
The sterile flight deck rule. Critical phases of flight include all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, and landing, and all other flight operations below 10,000 feet except cruise flight (121.542(c)) — with taxi defined as movement of an airplane under its own power on the surface. During those phases:
No crewmember may perform, and no carrier may require, any duties except those required for the safe operation of the aircraft — the reg's own examples of prohibited duties include company calls, galley orders, and passenger PR announcements (121.542(a))
No activity which could distract any crewmember is permitted — eating, nonessential conversation in the cockpit or with the cabin, reading unrelated publications (121.542(b))
Separately and during all flight time: no personal wireless communications device or laptop at a duty station unless the use is directly related to operation of the aircraft or for emergency/safety-related/employment-related communications per approved procedures (121.542(d))
AC 120-74 adds the crew-culture half: brief sterile cockpit, but encourage anyone to speak up if they see a conflict or interpret a clearance differently — sterile means no chatter, not no safety calls.
How should a crew capture and read back a taxi clearance at a complex airport (AA.II.C.S1)?
Write it down — AC 120-74 recommends written taxi instructions when routes are complex or the airport is unfamiliar; shorthand works: clearance "taxi 9R via Bravo, Echo, Juliet, hold short 4L at Echo" becomes written "9R B E J 4L E" with the 4L-at-Echo clearance limit circled, or "9R BEJ/4L E" in an FMC scratchpad, where the forward slash represents the hold short line
Read back all hold short instructions in full, with the complete call sign and the runway designator; avoid "Roger" or "Wilco" when the instruction involves entering, crossing, or holding short of a runway (AC 120-74)
Verbalize the plan between pilots and trace it on the airport diagram before the airplane moves — a common understanding is established by repeating the instructions and getting agreement, and any persistent disagreement is resolved by asking ATC
State your position on initial contact with every ground or tower controller, even if you already told the previous one (AC 120-74)
The read-back-in-full habit exists because incursions happen even after the pilot reads back the hold short — so the AC also suggests a physical reminder technique, like placing an object on the instrument panel or yoke until the hold-short is complied with.
What's the procedure for approaching and crossing any runway (AA.II.C.K8, S3)?
Be positive that ATC has cleared you to cross — if there's any doubt, stop (clear of the protected area) and ask
Approaching the hold line, verbalize "approaching (runway) hold short line"; before crossing, visually scan left and right, the full length of the runway and its approach paths, and coordinate verbally — "clear left, clear right" or that the scan is not clear (AC 120-74)
When approaching an entrance to a runway, come to a complete stop, or be in a phase of taxiing with no incursion risk, before continuing operational duties and checklists (AC 120-74)
All exterior lights on when crossing a runway — with judgment about blinding others with forward-facing lights (AC 120-74)
Extra vigilance taxiing between active parallel runways, and cross expeditiously once cleared
At night or in low visibility, the same procedure slows down; it never abbreviates.
You're told 'line up and wait.' What does disciplined LUAW look like?
Expect communication from ATC within 90 seconds of the LUAW clearance if you weren't told the reason for the wait or can't see it — if you hear nothing in 90 seconds, query ATC (AC 120-74)
TCAS/TAS on to build awareness of traffic that may be landing on your runway; scan the full length of the runway and the final approach as you taxi on
Monitor the tower frequency actively; if the radio goes unusually quiet or a stuck mic is suspected, contact ATC and watch for light gun signals
Lights: everything that highlights your silhouette except landing lights — landing lights come on with the takeoff clearance (AC 120-74)
At night, consider lining up slightly left or right of centerline (approximately 3 feet) so a landing aircraft can distinguish your lights from the runway lights (AC 120-74)
Be especially vigilant with LUAW at night or in reduced visibility — that's the AC's own emphasis, and the geometry — an aircraft holding on an active runway — is behind some of the worst accidents in aviation history.
Walk through the exterior lighting scheme for ground operations (AA.II.C.K4, S8).
AC 120-74's convention, adjusted for your airplane's equipment and limitations:
Phase
Lights
Engine running
Rotating beacon on
Taxiing
Navigation, position, anti-collision, and logo lights on before taxi; taxi light on when moving or intending to move, off when stopped or yielding
Crossing a runway
All exterior lights on, tempered by the caution about blinding other pilots or ground personnel
Entering the runway (takeoff or LUAW)
All lights that highlight the silhouette, except landing lights; strobes unless they'll adversely affect others
Takeoff clearance received (or commencing the roll at a non-towered airport)
Landing lights on
The lights are a signal system: the airplane silhouette announces "on the runway," and landing lights announce "rolling." The AC's caveat — adherence is voluntary and equipment varies, so never rely solely on another aircraft's lights to judge its intent.
What is SMGCS, and what changes when the low visibility taxi plan is in effect (AA.II.C.K10)?
The Surface Movement Guidance and Control System — a low-visibility taxi plan for airports where air carriers operate at RVR below 1,200 feet (IPH ch. 1, per AC 120-57 and FAA Order 8000.94). Its pieces:
Controllable stop bar lights — a row of red, unidirectional in-pavement lights controlled by ATC; required for operations below 500 ft RVR. Non-controllable stop bars mark intersections where movement is restricted and operate continuously below 500 RVR
Taxiway centerline lead-on lights — alternating green/yellow in-pavement lights guiding traffic in low visibility and at night
Runway guard lights — elevated or in-pavement alternately flashing yellow lights marking taxiway access to an active runway
Geographic position markings — the "pink spots," outlined in a black-and-white circle, used by ATC as hold points or for position reporting
Clearance bar lights — three yellow in-pavement lights denoting holding positions
Part 121 and 135 flight and ground crews are required to comply with SMGCS plans where implemented, and anyone operating under the plan must have the low visibility taxi route chart for that airport (IPH ch. 1). Brief it before you need it — the chart is useless discovered at the hold line in 600 RVR.
What should the crew know and brief about push-back procedures (AA.II.C.K5)?
AC 120-74 files pushback under the unusual-procedures briefing item: address previous experience at the airport and procedures "not typically used on an everyday basis, such as different pushback procedures or communication requirements" — the brief happens before the airplane moves, not while the tug is connected
The operation runs on an agreed-upon signal set with ground personnel: the AFH's ramp guidance is that whether the standard AIM hand signals or a modified set is used matters less than that each operation uses a suitable, agreed-upon set (AFH ch. 2; at night the Emergency Stop signal is used for all stop indications)
Before any movement, confirm the area around the airplane is clear of persons, equipment, and other hazards (AFH ch. 2)
The specifics — brake use while under tow, the nosewheel steering disconnect or bypass pin, and when the ground crew disconnects and is confirmed clear — belong to your operator's SOPs; be ready to walk them type-specifically
What are single-engine taxi considerations for the AMEL applicant (AA.II.C.K11)?
AC 120-74's directive is about time, not technique: brief single-engine taxi, including allowing enough time to complete all required checklists without any crewmember feeling rushed — and do not accept any ATC clearance if it appears you will be unable to properly complete all required checklist items. The engine you start during taxi injects a start sequence, an after-start flow, and a config change into exactly the phase where heads-down time causes incursions — so the briefing decides in advance where on the route the start happens and who is outside eyes while it does. The actual procedure — which engine, warm-up times, system limitations on one generator or hydraulic pump — is your AFM's and your operator's; know it cold and say it type-specifically.
Deep Dive
Managing heads-down time — the taxi skill the ACS is really testing
Runway incursion risk (AA.II.C.R6) concentrates where attention leaves the windows. AC 120-74's note is the thesis: many pilot errors occur when one or more pilots are off-frequency or heads-down, so high-workload duties belong before taxi begins.
How does a crew formally manage heads-down time during taxi?
By announcing it, bounding it, and locating it:
Announce the handoff both directions: "I'm heads-down, right turn ahead at Alpha" when dropping off the frequency or into the FMS, and "I'm back, any changes?" on return — reiterating any upcoming hold short instructions that could be misinterpreted (AC 120-74)
Bound it: any instructions received while a crewmember was away from the frequency are briefed and reviewed on return
Locate it: heads-down work happens only when the aircraft is taxiing straight ahead or stopped, with no upcoming hold short lines or hot spots — and time away from monitoring should be avoided entirely with complex routing or runway crossings (AC 120-74)
The distraction and task-prioritization risk element (AA.II.C.R1) and the partial-checklist risk (AA.II.C.R4) are both answered by the same discipline: checklists run at planned pauses, not dribbled through turns.
Where exactly does AC 120-74 require verbal crew coordination during ground operations?
Five fixed points:
When the clearance is issued — confirm and verbalize the assigned runway and taxi route against the airport diagram, including hold-short and crossing instructions
At complex intersections — verbally confirm the intersection's identity using the diagram and the heading indicator before transitioning through it
Approaching any hold short line — "approaching (runway) hold short line," then the scan and "clear left/right"
Before entering a runway for takeoff — verbally coordinate the flap setting, runway identification, compass heading, FMC entry, and receipt of the proper ATC clearance for that runway
When anything changes — a route change, a return to the gate, an out-of-the-ordinary flow demands heightened awareness from every crewmember
The compass check embedded in points 2 and 4 is the cheapest incursion insurance there is: the heading display confirms taxiway or runway alignment at every intersection where geometry could deceive you (AC 120-74).
You realize you're not sure where you are on the field. What now?
Never stop on a runway — that is the AC's one absolute in a disorientation event (AC 120-74)
Confirm which surface you're on: runways have white centerline markings; taxiways have continuous yellow centerlines (AC 120-74)
Stop the aircraft (clear of any runway) and advise ATC immediately; request progressive taxi — step-by-step routing that controllers also issue on their own initiative for traffic or construction (AC 120-74, IPH ch. 1)
Rebuild orientation with everything available: airport diagram, heading indicator, signs, markings, lighting — and in low visibility, the geographic position markings
Asking for progressive taxi is a professionalism marker on this checkride, not a confession. The unprofessional version is pressing on while lost, and that's how Category A incursions start.
Night, low visibility, and the non-towered corner case
The evaluator asks you to explain the differences between day and night taxi (AA.II.C.S7, S8).
The airport information doesn't change; your access to it does.
Lighting becomes signal and hazard: the full AC 120-74 lighting scheme carries your intent to others — and their lights are your traffic picture, with the caution that equipage varies and lights alone never confirm intent
Judgment calls on your own lights: strobes off during taxi where they'll blind other pilots or ground crew; forward-facing lights managed at runway crossings
Geometry gets harder: the cues that keep you found by day — pavement edges, signage seen peripherally — shrink to what's lit, so the diagram-plus-heading-indicator discipline does more of the work, exactly as in low visibility (AC 120-74)
LUAW at night carries the AC's specific mitigations: the ~3-foot centerline offset so landing traffic can distinguish you, and heightened vigilance because the 90-second rule matters most when nobody can see you
If the checkride happens entirely in daylight, expect to explain all of this — the ACS explicitly requires the explanation when the condition isn't available.
What changes for taxi at a non-towered airport, or when the tower closes, in an air-carrier airplane (AA.II.C.K7)?
From AC 120-74 Appendix 1:
Verify tower status first — part-time towers are the trap; if in doubt, attempt contact on the tower frequency
Communicate intentions on CTAF before taxi and listen for traffic operating to and from the airport; monitor and communicate from engine start until 10 miles from the airport unless regulations or OpSpecs direct otherwise
State the airport name at the beginning and end of each transmission, and remember some aircraft have no radio at all
Expect instrument traffic where VFR habits wouldn't: aircraft may be flying an instrument approach to a different runway than the one in visual use — possibly the opposite end of yours
Don't line up and hold on the departure runway any longer than absolutely necessary
Without ATC to stop you, the visual cues do ATC's job: signs, hold short lines, markings, lighting, and the airport diagram
The scan before entering any runway grows to include the full length plus both final approach and departure paths — on the appropriate frequency, with your own eyes as the only clearance you'll get.
How do braking, thrust, and speed discipline figure into taxi in a transport airplane (AA.II.C.S6)?
The ACS skill element requires positive control, proper speed, appropriate use of wheel brakes and reverse thrust, and separation from aircraft, vehicles, and persons:
Thrust: breakaway thrust that's too aggressive pulls damaging debris off the ground and sends jet blast at everything behind you — loose equipment included — so power comes up gently and comes off early (AFH ch. 16)
Speed: managed with thrust at idle and brakes applied deliberately rather than ridden
Reverse thrust: ground use is type- and operator-specific — FOD and visibility implications belong to your AFM and SOPs, so give the checkride answer that's your airplane's, not a generic one
Separation: universal regardless of type — a transport airplane's momentum and blast field mean you protect people and equipment with distance arranged in advance, not reactions
Task D. Taxiing and Sailing (ASES, AMES)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with safe taxi and sailing operations.
References: 14 CFR part 91, 121, 135; AC 91-73, AC 120-57, AC 120-74; AIM; Chart Supplements; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-23, FAA-H-8083-25; POH/AFM · Applies to: ASES, AMES
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral. This is the seaplane counterpart to Task II.C — the ATC, briefing, lighting, and incursion discipline from that task carries over unchanged for land operations, so these cards cover only what the water adds. The maritime rules and seaplane-base knowledge behind this task live under Task I.H.
Name the three positions for moving a seaplane on the water, and what supports the weight in each.
The three positions are idling (displacement), plowing, and planing (step) (FAA-H-8083-23, ch. 4):
Idling (displacement): the buoyancy of the floats supports the entire weight; attitude is similar to at-rest on the water
Plowing: power application shifts the center of buoyancy aft; the sterns dig in, drag is high, and it is normally just the transition between idle and planing — taxiing in it is not recommended
Planing (step): most of the weight is supported by hydrodynamic lift rather than buoyancy; the rear portions of the floats ride clear of the water, drastically reducing water drag
A seaplane is virtually always in motion and has no brakes — wind, current, thrust, and inertia keep acting on it from the moment it's untied — so the pilot must know the wind and water conditions, plan the course of action, and stay mentally ahead of the airplane.
What's the technique for idle taxi (AA.II.D.S9)?
Elevator all the way back to keep the nose high — it minimizes spray damage to the propeller and improves maneuverability by keeping more of the water rudder underwater. The exception: with a strong tailwind component or heavy swells, hold the elevator forward enough to keep the tail down so the wind can't lift it and flip the airplane
RPM as low as possible — for speed control, engine cooling, and spray
Keep speeds below 6–7 knots to limit spray to the propeller; in congested or confined areas, low speed also limits the coasting that inertia produces, because even minor collisions cause serious damage
Cross boat wakes or swells at a 45° angle where possible, to minimize pitching, rolling, and the chance of an upset (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4)
When is step taxi appropriate, and what are its rules?
Step taxi covers long distances on the water at high speed but well below flying speed — reduce power carefully as the seaplane comes onto the step to stop the acceleration; 65 to 70 percent of maximum power is a good starting point, more when heavy. The rules (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4):
Only where you're confident of sufficient water depth, no floating debris, no hidden obstructions, and no other water traffic nearby — a floating log can tear open a float, and never step taxi in shallow water: floats touching bottom at speed will likely flip the airplane
Water rudders retracted — at speed the dynamic pressure pounds them and they're ineffective anyway; steer with the air rudder and ailerons, holding a precise planing attitude with elevator
If a wake crossing is coming, reduce to idle and idle-taxi across it at an angle
Turns from downwind to upwind at step speed are proportionately more dangerous — centrifugal force and wind gang up on the outside float; if it starts to submerge, immediate full rudder out of the turn and power reduction may save it
What is the plowing position actually for, and why is the plow turn a last resort?
Plowing is the high-drag transitional phase — nose high, sterns deep, lots of power for little speed. Prolonged plowing risks engine overheating (high power, low cooling airflow) and spray damage to the propeller despite the nose-high attitude.
Plow turn: exploits the plowing attitude to neutralize weathervaning when turning downwind in strong wind — the exposed forward float area plus the aft-shifted center of buoyancy lets the airplane turn away from the wind, tracing a question-mark path.
Why a last resort: it's only effective in certain seaplanes, and floatplanes are least stable in the plowing attitude and very susceptible to capsizing — never attempt it in rough water or gusty conditions. In most windy situations it is much safer to sail the seaplane backward instead (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4).
What is sailing, and when should it be used (AA.II.D.K5)?
Sailing is guiding the seaplane on the water using the wind as the main motive force — usually moving backward, since the seaplane weathervanes nose-into-wind. Use it when wind, water conditions, or limited space make a conventional taxi turn impractical or unsafe — maneuvering into docks and confined spaces, and as the safer alternative to a plow turn. The mechanics (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4):
Swing the tail with the air rudder: keel effect pushes the seaplane in the direction the sterns point — so water rudders up, since their action is counter to what you want
With power balancing the wind so there's no motion through the water, keel effect disappears and the wind pushes the seaplane toward the side the nose is pointed — combining the two techniques sails you diagonally
With the engine off, lowering flaps and opening doors adds air resistance and sailing speed downwind
In strong wind, use full forward elevator to keep the float sterns from submerging — combined with wind lift on the wings, a buried stern can conceivably flip the airplane over backward
What determines the most favorable sailing or taxi course (AA.II.D.K6)?
Wind, current, and space — evaluated before entering a confined area, because afterward the forces are driving you into the obstructions.
Current: the handbook's benchmark for how much it matters — for an average seaplane at idle, a 5-knot current can offset a wind of 25 knots blowing the opposite direction; the current wins far more than intuition suggests
Keel effect: only works when the floats move through the water; if the current carries the seaplane, there may be little relative motion and the rudders go quiet even though you're moving over the bottom
Planning: plan the course using wind, current, and thrust together; remember each type sails differently (flying boats sail backward and toward the side the nose points regardless of wind velocity), and in multiengine seaplanes use differential power to aid steering (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4)
What is porpoising during step taxi, and what's the correction (AA.II.D.R2)?
A rhythmic pitching motion caused by dynamic instability in the forces along the float bottoms while on the step — an incorrect planing attitude (nose too low or too high, roughly a degree or two beyond the acceptable range) sets off a cyclic oscillation that steadily increases in amplitude unless the proper pitch attitude is reestablished. Uncorrected, it noses the airplane into the water.
Correction:timely back pressure to keep the float bows from digging in, held until the porpoising stops. If it hasn't stopped by the second oscillation, reduce power to idle and hold the elevator firmly back so the seaplane settles on with no further instability — and never chase the oscillations, which amplifies them.
Weight, flap position, and CG all shift the acceptable attitude band; a forward CG increases the tendency (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4).
How do you tell skipping from porpoising, and how do you stop it?
Skipping is a cyclic oscillation entered at the upper trim limit — excessive speed with the nose too high — and it can also be triggered by crossing a boat wake while on the step.
Body-feel distinction: a skip delivers vertical G forces, like bouncing a landplane; porpoising feels like a rocking-chair forward-and-aft motion. Skipping's amplitude doesn't grow the way porpoising does, but the pounding hammers the floats and airframe and can lead to porpoising.
Correction:increase back pressure and add enough power to keep the floats off the water, establish the proper pitch attitude, then reduce power gradually to settle on gently (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4).
What changes for night or low visibility taxi and sailing on the water (AA.II.D.K7d, K7e)?
The land-side lighting and taxi discipline from Task II.C carries over; the water adds an environment that is mostly unlit:
A lighted seaplane landing area is identified by a rotating beacon alternating white and yellow — a double white flash alternating with yellow marks a military seaplane base (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 1)
Usually only the more important buoys are lighted; some unlighted buoys carry red, white, or green reflectors with the same significance as lights. Red buoys carry red or white lights, green/black buoys green or white lights, and a light flashing Morse code "A" marks a mid-channel buoy (ch. 1)
Anchored craft — including an anchored seaplane — show an anchor light where maritime regulations require it (ch. 6)
The handbook's night-water caution names the hazard: the difficulty of seeing objects in the water and judging surface conditions (ch. 6) — so at night or in low visibility, slow down, work from lighted and known references, and treat unlighted water as uninspected
You're flying an amphibian. What's the gear-position discipline on the water (AA.II.D.R6)?
Backwards from every landplane instinct: on water, wheels up. A wheels-down landing on water is almost certain to capsize the seaplane — far more serious than a wheels-up landing on pavement. The handbook's technique: make it verbal and visual — many experienced pilots say out loud, "This is a water landing, so the wheels should be up," then confirm each wheel using externally mounted mirrors and other visual indicators, not just the gear position indicators (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6). For this task the same check belongs to taxi phases: confirm gear position any time you transition between ramp, land, and water operations, and brief it as a crew callout where a crew exists.
Task E. Before Takeoff Checks
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with before takeoff checks.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What does the before-takeoff check become in a crew airplane (AA.II.E.S2)?
A sequence of flows verified by checklists, run at planned pauses so nothing competes with taxiing. AC 120-74's placement guidance: complete predeparture checklist items at the gate when possible — including setting takeoff flaps — or while stopped or taxiing straight ahead without complex intersections or hot spots ahead. The skill element adds the word that gets applicants: complete the checklists in a timely manner — meaning done before the runway, never finishing a checklist while taking the runway. During the checks you must be able to explain, on request, any system's operating characteristics, limitations, and the corrective action for a malfunction (AA.II.E.S3) — in a type-rated airplane, the run-up of your commercial days is replaced by systems verification against the AFM's acceptable ranges.
What is the takeoff data computed from, and who checks it (AA.II.E.S1)?
Takeoff data — V1/VR and V2, takeoff power settings, and required field length — is computed prior to each takeoff from: airplane weight, runway length available, runway gradient, field temperature, field barometric pressure, wind, icing conditions, and runway condition (AFH ch. 16). The crew procedure:
Without an FMS, record it on a takeoff data card
Both pilots review the data entered in the FMS, or separately compute and cross-check against the data card
If takeoff plans change while taxiing — recalculate (AFH ch. 16)
That last line is the risk element about a runway change (AA.II.E.R2) in one sentence: new runway, new data, new brief. No exceptions for "it's longer anyway."
Define V1 — both the working definition and the expanded one.
Working definition: takeoff decision speed — the speed by which the continue/stop decision must be made; below V1 it's considered safer to stop within the accelerate-stop distance (AFH ch. 16). The FAA's expanded definition (from the Takeoff Safety Training Aid, AC 120-62, via AFH ch. 16) — V1 is the speed selected for each takeoff, based on approved performance data and specified conditions, which represents:
The maximum speed by which a rejected takeoff assures a safe stop within the remaining runway (or runway and stopway)
The minimum speed which assures the takeoff can be safely completed within the remaining runway (or runway and clearway) after failure of the most critical engine at the designated speed
The single speed permitting both, when operating at the minimum allowable field length for a particular weight
In certification, V1 hangs on VEF — the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail, itself not less than VMCG — plus the speed gained during recognition before the pilot's first stopping action (25.107(a)).
Define VR, V2, and VLOF, with their certification floors.
VR — rotation speed: rotation to the takeoff attitude begins. It may not be less than V1, nor less than 105 percent of VMC, nor less than the speed that allows reaching V2 before 35 feet above the takeoff surface (25.107(e); AFH ch. 16)
VLOF — lift-off speed: the calibrated airspeed at which the airplane first becomes airborne (25.107(f))
V2 — takeoff safety speed: the speed at which the required one-engine-inoperative climb performance can be achieved after lift-off (AFH ch. 16). Its floor, V2MIN: not less than 1.13 VSR for two- and three-engine turboprops and jets without provision for reducing the OEI stall speed, 1.08 VSR for turboprops with more than three engines and jets with that provision — and in all cases at least 1.10 times VMC (25.107(b))
The numbers for your airplane on today's runway are AFM output — the concept you must own is that V1/VR/V2 encode the entire engine-failure plan before brake release.
How does the low-speed/high-speed regime split shape the reject decision you brief (AA.II.E.R7)?
Most manufacturers recommend identifying a low-speed regime (80 knots and below) and a high-speed regime (100 knots and above) of the takeoff run (AFH ch. 16):
Low speed: abort for any malfunction or abnormality, actual or suspected
High speed: reject only for catastrophic malfunctions or life-threatening situations — weighing the threat against the risk of an overrun
The statistics behind the split: although only 2 percent of rejected takeoffs are high-speed aborts above 120 knots, they account for the vast majority of RTO overrun accidents (AFH ch. 16). SOPs add a speed callout at the regime transition — a last crosscheck of airspeed and thrust, and an incapacitation check by challenge-and-response. The briefing states this split out loud so that at 130 knots nobody is inventing criteria. The maneuver itself is Task III.I; the plan is this task.
Why must the reject decision be made before V1 rather than at it?
Because V1 is where deceleration must begin, not where deciding starts. The go/no-go decision should be made before V1 so that deceleration can begin no later than V1 — if braking has not begun by V1, the decision to continue has been made by default. Delaying the RTO just one second beyond V1 adds 4 to 6 knots on average, and crews require 3 to 7 seconds to identify an impending RTO and execute it (AFH ch. 16).
Execution order matters too — the instinctive "normal landing" sequence delays the primary deceleration force when every second counts:
Apply maximum braking immediately while simultaneously retarding the throttles
Extend spoilers
Deploy reversers
A rejected takeoff should be perceived as an emergency (AFH ch. 16).
Your accelerate-stop numbers assume what — and what degrades them (AA.II.E.K3)?
FAA-approved takeoff data is demonstrated in ideal conditions: a clean, dry runway and maximum braking — reverse thrust is not used to compute stopping distance (AFH ch. 16). The AFH lists these degraders:
One mitigation to know by name: a reduced V1 — less than normal or maximum V1 but above minimum V1 — properly adjusts the RTO stopping distance for the degraded stopping capability of wet or contaminated runways, while adding roughly 2 seconds of recognition time for the crew (AFH ch. 16).
What goes in the takeoff briefing (AA.II.E.K4, S5)?
The captain's briefing is an essential part of CRM, accomplished prior to takeoff (AFH ch. 16). Built from the ACS skill element, AC 120-74, and the AFH's sample captain's briefing (AFH Figure 16-12), a complete brief covers:
Runway and intersection, verified against the clearance — plus airport NOTAMs and closed taxiways/runways
Takeoff performance: the computed V-speeds and thrust setting, obstacle clearance and minimum climb gradients, and any MEL/CDL special considerations
Departure: SID or IFR departure, initial heading, altitude, and fix
Terrain and weather: significant terrain or obstacles relative to the departure routing, significant weather — windshear gets its planned response stated (AA.II.E.S5)
The abnormal plan: reject criteria by regime before V1, and for powerplant failure after V1 — continue, fly the engine-out profile (the maneuver is Task VII.B; the commitment happens here)
Who does what: the PM's callouts and monitoring duties during the roll are set "as directed in the captain's briefing" (AFH ch. 16)
The test of a good brief: if the engine fails at 200 feet tonight, was every first action already spoken aloud on the ground?
Define holdover time, and name the three ways you may legally take off after exceeding it (121.629(c)).
Holdover time is the estimated time deicing/anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost or ice and the accumulation of snow on the protected surfaces. It begins when the final application of fluid commences and expires when the fluid loses its effectiveness (121.629(c)(3)). The carrier's program must provide procedures to increase or decrease the determined time in changing conditions. After any maximum holdover time is exceeded, takeoff is permitted only when at least one of these is true:
A pretakeoff contamination check determines the wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces are free of frost, ice, or snow
An alternate procedure approved by the Administrator in the carrier's program makes that determination
The aircraft is redeiced and a new holdover time determined (121.629(c)(3))
Distinguish the pretakeoff check from the pretakeoff contamination check (121.629(c)(4)).
A pretakeoff check is a check of the wings or representative aircraft surfaces for frost, ice, or snow, conducted within the holdover time — the routine confirmation that the fluid is still doing its job
A pretakeoff contamination check verifies the wings, control surfaces, and other critical surfaces are free of frost, ice, and snow after the holdover time has been exceeded. It must be conducted within five minutes prior to beginning takeoff, and from outside the aircraft unless the carrier's program specifies otherwise (121.629(c)(4))
A carrier operating without an approved deicing program lives under 121.629(d): whenever contamination could reasonably adhere, no takeoff unless the aircraft is checked free of it within five minutes prior to takeoff, from outside the aircraft. And behind all of it stands the clean aircraft concept — no takeoff with frost, ice, or snow adhering to critical surfaces (121.629(b)), with dispatch into expected icing itself conditioned on the opinion of the PIC or aircraft dispatcher that safety won't be adversely affected (121.629(a)).
Deep Dive
Setting the flight deck for the departure you were actually cleared for
The skill element bundles the whole setup: determine airspeeds/V-speeds, set flight instruments, and configure the flight director, autopilot, and navigation and communication equipment for current conditions and the takeoff and departure clearance (AA.II.E.S4). The failure mode the risk elements target is a flight deck configured for the departure you expected instead of the one you received.
How do you configure and verify the automation and avionics for departure (AA.II.E.S4, R4, R5)?
Bugs and instruments: V-speeds set from the cross-checked data; flight instruments set and checked for the departure (the AFH ch. 2 discipline — heading indicators verified against the compass, bug to runway heading or as assigned — scales directly into the glass flight deck)
Avionics: frequencies, initial navigation sources and courses, autopilot preselects, and transponder configured to the clearance (AFH ch. 2)
Flight director: set to the modes your operator's profile calls for on this departure — and stated in the brief, so both pilots expect the same commands at rotation
The verification gate: before entering the runway, verbally coordinate flap setting, runway identification, compass heading, FMC entry, and receipt of the proper ATC clearance for that runway (AC 120-74)
The autopilot/flight-director risk element (AA.II.E.R5) is really a mode-awareness question: be ready to state what the FD will command at liftoff and what happens if you engage the autopilot with the wrong lateral mode armed — in your airplane's terms, from your AFM.
Holding short, you get 'runway 22R at Whiskey, cleared for takeoff' — not the 27 you briefed. What must happen before you accept?
Everything downstream of the runway assumption gets redone:
New performance: recalculate the takeoff data — weight didn't change, but runway length, intersection distance, gradient, and wind component did (AFH ch. 16: if takeoff plans change while taxiing, recalculate)
New setup: FMC runway and departure, bugs if the speeds changed, nav/comm as required — heads-down work done stopped, not rolling (AC 120-74)
New brief: the abnormal plan was runway-specific — reject margins, engine-out routing, terrain
New taxi picture: route to the new runway, hold lines, hot spots — expectation bias is exactly the trap AC 120-74 warns about: fly the clearance received, not the one you briefed (AA.II.E.R2)
If the frequency pressure doesn't allow all of that before the runway, the professional answer is "unable" — a transport airplane is never obligated to accept a takeoff clearance faster than the crew can rebuild the plan.
What does correctly obtaining and interpreting the takeoff clearance involve (AA.II.E.S6)?
Read back takeoff and landing clearances including the runway designator, and state "intersection departure" when applicable (AC 120-74)
Use the complete call sign — clipped call signs are how another aircraft's clearance becomes yours, and the AC flags similar call signs on frequency as a specific hazard
LUAW is not a takeoff clearance: expect ATC communication within 90 seconds or query, keep TCAS on, and monitor for traffic on your runway (AC 120-74, developed in Task II.C)
Confirm the runway physically: the verbal coordination gate — runway identification and compass heading against the clearance — happens as you take the runway (AC 120-74), the last defense against a wrong-surface departure
Landing lights on when takeoff clearance is received — the lighting signal that tells everyone else you're rolling (AC 120-74)
Winter and adverse-weather departures
Who decides the airplane is clean, and how does the winter decision chain run on the day?
The chain, assembled from 121.629:
Dispatch into icing at all rides on the judgment of the PIC or aircraft dispatcher that expected icing won't adversely affect safety (121.629(a))
Conditions that could produce adherence trigger the carrier's approved ground deicing/anti-icing program — which defines who decides procedures are in effect, each group's duties, and the fluid types and procedures in use (121.629(c)(1))
Fluid application starts the holdover clock at the final application's commencement (121.629(c)(3))
Inside the holdover time, a pretakeoff check of the wings or representative surfaces confirms the fluid is holding; beyond it, the three options apply — contamination check, approved alternate procedure, or redeice with a new holdover time (121.629(c)(3)–(4))
The takeoff itself must satisfy the clean aircraft concept — nothing adhering to wings, control surfaces, propellers, engine inlets, or other critical surfaces (121.629(b))
Crew training on all of this — holdover use, fluid characteristics, contamination recognition, communications — is a required element of the program itself (121.629(c)(2)), which is why the examiner can expect fluent answers rather than a shrug toward the ground crew.
Beyond ice, what adverse-weather items does this task expect in the before-takeoff thinking (AA.II.E.K3)?
Contaminated or slick runway: shifts the accelerate-stop problem — the reduced-V1 logic and the degraded-stopping-factor list (AFH ch. 16) become today's numbers, not trivia
Gusting crosswinds: in strong, gusty wind it is advisable to carry an extra margin of speed before the airplane is allowed to leave the ground (AFH ch. 6) — in transport practice, applied per your AFM/operator gust-additive policy, and briefed with the crosswind technique for the roll
Windshear: the ACS names it in the briefing element (AA.II.E.S5) — the planned response is stated before takeoff, and the escape maneuver belongs to your operator's procedures
Low visibility: ties the takeoff clearance to the taxi problem — SMGCS routes and the verification gate against a wrong-surface line-up (Task II.C)
The common thread: every one of these changes either the data, the brief, or both. Weather that changes nothing you compute or say out loud hasn't been assessed yet.
Area III. Takeoffs and Landings
Task A. Normal Takeoff and Climb
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management and skills associated with a normal takeoff and climb.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What are the ATP tolerances for a normal takeoff and climb?
Climb airspeed/V-speed ±5 knots for each climb segment (AA.III.A.S13)
Desired heading ±5° (AA.III.A.S14)
Around those two numbers sits the crew dimension the lower certificates never graded:
Coordinate with the crew and complete the appropriate checklists prior to takeoff in a timely manner (AA.III.A.S1)
Confirm takeoff power and proper engine and flight instrument indications prior to rotation, making callouts per the airplane or the operator's procedures (AA.III.A.S10)
Retract gear and flaps in accordance with manufacturer or operator procedures and limitations (AA.III.A.S15)
The examiner is watching a crew procedure, not a stick-and-rudder maneuver.
Define the takeoff V-speeds in certification order.
From AFH ch. 16:
VS — stalling speed or minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable
VEF — the speed used during certification at which the critical engine is assumed to fail
V1 — critical engine failure speed or takeoff decision speed: at speeds less than V1 it is considered safer to stop within the accelerate-stop distance; it is also the minimum speed, following a failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the takeoff can be continued and the required height reached within the takeoff distance
VR — rotation speed; cannot be less than V1 or less than 1.05 × VMC, and on an engine-out takeoff allows acceleration to V2 at the 35-foot height
VLOF — lift-off speed, the engineering term for when the airplane first becomes airborne
V2 — takeoff safety speed: the referenced airspeed obtained after lift-off at which the required one-engine-inoperative climb performance can be achieved
The actual numbers are weight- and type-specific — they come from your AFM data, never from memory.
What must the takeoff briefing cover on the ATP practical test?
Every applicant must brief before each takeoff. If the operator or manufacturer hasn't specified one, ACS Appendix 3 requires the briefing to cover the items appropriate to the conditions:
Departure runway and departure procedure
Power settings and speeds
Abnormal or emergency procedures prior to or after reaching decision speed (V1 or VMC)
Emergency return intentions
Go-around/rejected landing procedures and initial rate of descent (for the landing briefing)
What is expected of the other crewmembers during the takeoff and landing
If the first briefing is satisfactory, the evaluator may allow you to brief only the changes for the rest of the test. Single-pilot applicants must verbalize the briefings — silence is not an option.
Describe the division of labor between the pilot flying and pilot monitoring during the takeoff roll.
Per AFH ch. 16:
Pilot flying — concentrates on directional control, keeps the airplane exactly on centerline with wings level, holds slight forward pressure to keep the nose-wheel rolling firmly, monitors nose-wheel steering to about 80 knots (or VMCG), and keeps the other hand on the thrust levers until at least V1
Pilot monitoring (not flying) — makes the final engine power adjustments (takeoff thrust set prior to reaching 60 knots), holds forward column pressure once the PF's hand comes up to the wheel, closely monitors aircraft systems, and calls out the V-speeds as directed in the captain's briefing
Although the PM watches the engine instruments throughout, the pilot flying (pilot in command) makes the decision to continue or reject — and a reject decision requires immediate retarding of the thrust levers.
What takeoff data must exist before you release the brakes, and what happens if the plan changes during taxi?
Takeoff data — V1/VR and V2 speeds, takeoff power settings, and required field length — must be computed prior to each takeoff, based on:
Airplane weight
Runway length available and gradient
Field temperature and barometric pressure
Wind and icing conditions
Runway condition
Without an FMS the data goes on a takeoff data card; with one, both pilots review the FMS entries or separately compute and cross-check against the card. If takeoff plans change while taxiing — new runway, new intersection — the crew recalculates (AFH ch. 16). This is the practical backbone of AA.III.A.R1: runway selection against aircraft limitations, available distance, surface conditions, and wind.
Describe the rotation. Why does the rate matter as much as the speed?
At VR the pilot monitoring makes the callout and the pilot flying rotates smoothly but deliberately at a constant rate — approximately 2.5° to 3° per second — to the airplane's specific takeoff pitch attitude, normally between 10° and 15° nose up, which stays constant regardless of weight. The objective is to accelerate through VLOF and attain V2 at 35 feet AGL (AFH ch. 16).
Early or fast rotation extends the takeoff roll or produces an early lift-off, a lower climb rate, and divergence from the predicted flightpath
Late rotation lengthens the roll, overshoots V2, and puts the takeoff and climb path below the predicted path — critical when runway or obstacle clearance is limited, and on some airplanes the achieved flightpath can fall below the engine-out scheduled flightpath
Walk through the configuration schedule on initial climb.
Landing gear — retract after a positive rate of climb has been established and confirmed (AA.III.A.S15). Beware: the VSI and altimeter may not show a positive climb until 35 to 50 feet above the runway due to ground effect, and gear-door transit can temporarily add drag
Flaps — not until passing obstruction clearance altitude or 400 feet AGL; hold the climb pitch attitude and let ground effect plus gear-drag reduction accelerate the airplane to flap retraction speed
Trim — trim out longitudinal stick forces as a steady climb develops; if reducing power, reduce pitch simultaneously as needed
Speed — limited to 250 KIAS below 10,000 feet MSL (91.117(a)); above that, climb at the AFM's best rate speed
(AFH ch. 16.) The Task closes with the after-takeoff checklist completed in a timely manner (AA.III.A.S18).
How do wind and crosswind change the takeoff at transport standards?
Position the flight controls for the existing wind (AA.III.A.S5): during the roll, keep the wings level by displacing the control wheel into the crosswind — there is no torque-produced yaw to fight in a jet, which makes centerline control somewhat easier and automatically positions you well for an engine failure (AFH ch. 16). Know two test-specific facts:
If no crosswind exists on test day, your crosswind knowledge is evaluated orally (Task note)
In a full flight simulator, the evaluator sets a crosswind component between 10 and 15 knots, with discretion to go higher — but never above the operator's or AFM's demonstrated maximum (ACS Appendix 3)
What counts as a 'normal takeoff' on this practical test?
ACS Appendix 3 defines it: a normal takeoff begins from a standing or rolling start — not from a touch-and-go — with all engines operating normally during the takeoff and initial climb phase. Area III as a whole requires at least three actual landings, at least one to a full stop, and the evaluator may combine landing Tasks with those in the Instrument Procedures and Emergency Operations Areas of Operation.
How do you make sure you are taking off on the correct runway?
Verify the assigned/correct runway (AA.III.A.S3) with more than the sign at the hold-short line: before beginning the takeoff roll, ensure the runway numbers agree with the magnetic compass and heading indicators (AFH takeoff checks), and confirm the runway and position match expectations before aligning on centerline (AFH ch. 16). The takeoff briefing itself should include visual verification of the correct surface and direction to preclude a wrong-surface departure (AFH ch. 2). Wrong-surface events are the departure-side twin of the SAFO 17010 landing problem covered under Task III.B.
What runway markings and lighting matter for the takeoff (AA.III.A.K4)?
From PHAK ch. 14:
Runway holding position markings — four yellow lines, two solid, two dashed; stop before the solid pair and never cross without a clearance
Displaced threshold — the portion of runway behind it is available for takeoffs in either direction, or landings from the opposite direction; displacement only reduces the length available for landing
Runway distance remaining signs — black background, white numeral, runway remaining in thousands of feet; the natural cross-check for the reject decision
Lighting — runway edge lights are white (amber over the last 2,000 feet or half the runway, whichever is less, on instrument runways) with red end lights; runway centerline lights run white, alternate red and white for the next 2,000 feet, and turn all red for the last 1,000 feet
Deep Dive
The takeoff as a crew procedure
The knowledge and risk elements of this Task read like the private-pilot version — wind, V-speeds, configuration, runway markings, wake turbulence — but the skill elements are transport-flavored: callouts per the operator's procedures, checklists in a timely manner, and configuration per operator limitations, not just the manufacturer's. Your answers should sound like SOPs, not technique.
Static or rolling takeoff — what is the difference and when is each used?
Static: when runway length is limited, hold the brakes while the thrust levers come up to the AFM-specified setting, let the engines stabilize, and check the engine instruments before brake release — this assures symmetrical thrust and prevents overshooting the target setting. After release, set the pre-computed takeoff power
Rolling: with sufficient runway, advance the thrust levers smoothly to the recommended intermediate setting as the airplane rolls onto the runway, let the engines stabilize, then proceed as in the static procedure; a rolling takeoff can also be made from the runway end by advancing thrust from idle as the brakes release
(AFH ch. 16.) Either way, takeoff thrust adjustments are complete prior to 60 knots, and a thrust lever comes back only if an engine exceeds a limitation.
Why does the pilot flying's hand stay on the thrust levers until V1 — and why does it leave?
The pilot flying keeps a hand on the thrust levers until V1 because that is the last point at which the reject option remains available: the PF (pilot in command) owns the continue/reject decision, and a reject requires immediate retarding of thrust. After V1, keeping a hand on the levers is no longer mandatory — the point for abort has passed — and both hands go to the control wheel for rotation (AFH ch. 16). Moving the hand is a deliberate signal, to yourself and the other pilot, that the airplane is now committed to fly. The decision logic itself is Task III.I's territory.
What is a takeoff and departure profile, and why does the examiner care?
The takeoff and climb-out should be accomplished in accordance with a standard takeoff and departure profile developed for the particular make and model (AFH ch. 16) — a published picture of when rotation happens, when gear and flaps come up, what speed each climb segment is flown at, and where power changes occur. It is what makes AA.III.A.S13's "±5 knots for each climb segment" testable: each segment has a briefed target speed from the AFM or operator profile, and you fly it. Noise abatement procedures are folded in as practicable (AA.III.A.S17).
ATC asks for a higher rate of climb. What is the trade, and what is a zoom climb?
Increasing pitch slightly increases climb rate as airspeed bleeds off — down to L/DMAX, which is best angle-of-climb speed, where the rate of climb is actually less than it was at best rate speed. Trading airspeed for altitude beyond that is a zoom climb: an increased rate for a few thousand feet that ultimately reduces overall climb performance (AFH ch. 16). Comply with the request, but know where the energy is coming from.
How do you handle wake turbulence on departure (AA.III.A.R2, S16)?
Wingtip vortices are strongest when the generating aircraft is heavy, clean, and slow — exactly the departure case. From PHAK ch. 5:
Rotate prior to the point at which the preceding aircraft rotated
Avoid following another aircraft on a similar flight path within 1,000 feet vertically
Vortices drift with the wind — a 10-knot wind moves them about 1,000 feet per minute, so factor wind into your lift-off point and initial track
If unsure where the preceding aircraft rotated or touched down, approximately 3 minutes provides a margin
At ATP weight you are often the generator — but behind a heavier type, the geometry problem is yours to solve before brake release, as part of the briefing.
Task B. Normal Approach and Landing
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with a normal approach and landing.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What are the ATP tolerances for a normal approach and landing?
Recommended approach and landing configuration and airspeed ±5 knots, adjusting pitch and power to maintain a stabilized approach (AA.III.B.S7)
Touch down with the runway centerline between the main landing gear at the appropriate speed and pitch attitude, at the runway aiming point markings −250/+500 feet — or, where there are no runway markings, 750 to 1,500 feet from the approach threshold (AA.III.B.S10)
Seaplanes: contact the water at the proper pitch attitude within 200 feet beyond a specified point; for AMES, touchdown must also be within the first one-third of the water landing area (AA.III.B.S11, ASES/AMES)
Decelerate to taxi speed — 20 knots or less on dry pavement, 10 knots or less on contaminated pavement — within the calculated landing distance plus 25% for the actual conditions, centerline still between the main gear, on at least one landing (AA.III.B.S12)
Use spoilers, prop reverse, thrust reverse, wheel brakes, and other drag/braking devices as appropriate; at least one landing to a full stop (AA.III.B.S13)
Execute a timely go-around if the approach cannot be made within these tolerances or for any other unsafe condition (AA.III.B.S14)
How many landings does the ATP practical require, and what conditions apply?
From ACS Appendix 3: at least three actual landings, at least one to a full stop; the evaluator may combine landing Tasks with those in the Instrument Procedures and Emergency Operations Areas of Operation.
Crosswind: the evaluator should test at least one required landing while you manually control the airplane in a crosswind — though in an airplane they may have no option but the crosswind that exists on the active runway. In a full flight simulator the crosswind component is set between 10 and 15 knots, with evaluator discretion to go higher — but never above the operator's aircraft operating manual limit or the AFM's maximum demonstrated value
Briefing: precedes every takeoff and landing; after one satisfactory briefing, you may brief only the changes
What are the elements of a stabilized approach in a jet (AA.III.B.K1)?
From AFH ch. 16:
Landing configuration by 1,000 feet AGL — gear down, landing flaps selected, trim set, fuel balanced
On profile before descending below 1,000 feet — configuration, trim, speed, and glidepath at or near optimum, with an optimum glidepath angle of about 3°
Indicated airspeed between zero and 10 knots above target by 500 feet AGL
Descent rate matched to ground speed — rule of thumb: half the ground speed × 10 (130 knots GS → 650 fpm); typical rates fall between 500 and 700 fpm, and an excessive vertical speed flags a problem
Every approach is evaluated at 500 feet — about one minute from touchdown in a typical jet. Not stabilized there? Go around.
Why is the stabilized approach an 'absolute necessity' in a jet rather than a best practice?
AFH ch. 16 lists the reasons jets are less forgiving than propeller airplanes:
No propeller slipstream to produce instant extra lift or lower the power-on stall speed — you cannot salvage a misjudged glidepath with a burst of power, and there's virtually no difference between power-on and power-off stall speed
Slow engine response at low rpm — the approach must be flown at a stable speed and power setting so thrust is available quickly
Greater weight and momentum — speed and course corrections take more force and more time
Little tendency to re-acquire the original speed after a deviation
Drag increases faster than lift at low speed: a developing sink rate demands a pitch increase that rapidly deepens the sink unless significant power comes in promptly
The AFM performance data assumes an exact 50-foot threshold crossing at exactly 1.3 VSO and touchdown in a zone about 1,000 feet down the runway — the stabilized approach is what delivers the airplane to that window.
Define the landing reference speeds.
From AFH ch. 16:
VSO — stall speed in the landing configuration
VREF — 1.3 × VSO, the final approach reference (airplanes certified under the current part 25 standard schedule VREF at not less than 1.23 VSR, the reference stall speed — 25.125(b)(2) — which is what a modern AFM will show)
Approach climb — the speed that guarantees adequate go-around performance with an inoperative engine
Landing climb — the speed that guarantees the descent can be arrested and a go-around made from the final stages of landing, in full landing configuration, with maximum takeoff power on all engines
Speeds are calculated for every landing and posted where both pilots can see them. Never let airspeed decay below VREF — a high sink rate can develop. Type-specific values come from your AFM.
What do excess speed and excess height over the threshold actually cost in landing distance?
AFH ch. 16 gives the arithmetic:
Excess approach speed carried through the threshold adds 20–30 feet per knot of minimum stopping distance on a dry runway, 40–50 feet per knot on a wet one
Excess speed also invites an extended flare, adding roughly 250 feet per excess knot to the touchdown point
An extra 50 feet of height over the threshold adds approximately 1,000 feet to landing distance
A flat approach costs too: 2° instead of 3° adds about 500 feet
These numbers are why the ATP standard grades your touchdown against the aiming point at −250/+500 feet — drift outside it and the certified stopping numbers no longer describe your landing.
Describe the flare and touchdown in a transport-category airplane.
A jet should be flown onto the runway rather than held off — it is aerodynamically clean even in landing configuration and the engines produce residual thrust at idle, so holding off greatly increases landing distance. A firm landing is normal and desirable (deliberate and positive, not hard).
Typical geometry (AFH ch. 16):
Gear crosses the threshold 30–45 feet up
5–7 seconds from threshold to touchdown
Flare initiated at roughly 15 feet, with a pitch increase of only 1° to 3°, reducing sink to 100–200 fpm
Thrust smoothly to idle as the flare progresses
Fly it to the target touchdown point even if speed is excessive — the extended flare is the classic overrun setup and can end in a tail strike.
After touchdown, what are the three stopping forces and how do you sequence them (AA.III.B.S13)?
Lower the nose-wheel immediately — landing distance charts assume it is down within 4 seconds of touchdown; it reduces AOA and lift, loads the tires, and aids directional control
Spoilers immediately — most effective at high speed; they dump lift, load the wheels, and make maximum tire braking force available
Brakes — the most effective and most important stopping force for most landings; begin as soon after touchdown and wheel spin-up as possible
Reversers quickly, but no significant reverse until the nose-wheel is on the ground — asymmetric deployment demands nose-wheel steering authority; reverse and aerodynamic drag dominate only at high speed and on very slippery runways
Remember directional control and braking share the same tire-ground friction — increasing either subtracts from the other.
What is a landing distance assessment at time of arrival (SAFO 19001)?
No regulation requires it, but the FAA encourages all operators (parts 121, 125, 135, 91) to assess landing distance at time of arrival — around top of descent, when current weather and field conditions are in hand, and no later than commencing the approach. It was born of the TALPA Aviation Rulemaking Committee after the December 2005 737 overrun at Chicago Midway, implemented October 1, 2016. Key pieces:
Airports report conditions via the Runway Condition Assessment Matrix (RCAM) and Runway Condition Codes; friction measuring values are no longer used because they don't correlate reliably with airplane braking performance
Pilot braking action reports run Good, Good to Medium, Medium, Medium to Poor, Poor, Nil — and their reliability depends on aircraft similarity and time since the report
Time-of-arrival data (or the SAFO's Landing Distance Factors applied to unfactored AFM distance) includes a 15 percent safety margin
Preflight wet/slippery dispatch data (121.195, 135.385, 91.1037) may not provide adequate runway for actual wet or contaminated conditions at arrival
What must you consider before accepting a LAHSO clearance (AA.III.B.R4)?
Land and hold short operations support simultaneous operations on intersecting runways. From PHAK ch. 14:
Know the landing distance available to the hold-short point and the signs/markings there
Advise ATC if you cannot comply — accepting means you either exit before the intersecting runway or stop at the holding position
LAHSO is generally not authorized at night, and not authorized on wet runways
At many airports, air carrier aircraft are not authorized to participate when the other aircraft is general aviation
The ATP-specific trap is the go-around after acceptance — that scenario belongs to Task III.J.
What does SAFO 17010 ask of you on every visual approach (AA.III.B.R7)?
SAFO 17010 asks two things of you on every visual approach:
Fly a stabilized approach — an unstable approach consumes both pilots' attention and starves situational awareness
Back up visual approaches with technology: tune a published approach (ILS, LOC, VOR, RNAV) to the assigned runway to verify alignment
It followed the July 2017 San Francisco incident: an airliner cleared for Runway 28R at night lined up on Taxiway C — with four airliners holding on it — and began a go-around while directly over them. This is the modern content of AA.III.B.S4 (ensure alignment with the correct/assigned runway) and the "incorrect airport surface approach" risk element.
Deep Dive
Margins: the numbers behind the dispatch and the arrival
Two different margin systems protect the landing — one applied at planning, one at arrival. The examiner will probe whether you know which is which.
Where does certified landing distance come from, and what does it exclude?
14 CFR 25.125 defines it: the horizontal distance to land and come to a complete stop from a point 50 feet above the landing surface. Manufacturers determine it on a dry, level runway at standard temperatures, with speed brakes deployed and maximum wheel braking — and without thrust reversers, autobrakes, or auto-land (AFH ch. 16; SAFO 19001 adds that the unfactored AFM distance may reflect aggressive flight-test air distances). So the book number assumes a stop you will rarely fly on the line — which is exactly why arrival-time assessments and safety margins exist. Reversers should absolutely still be used when available; they are margin, not credit.
What safety cushion do pilots apply to dry and wet runway landing lengths?
As an accepted safety practice from AFH ch. 16: divide the usable runway length by 1.67 — the result should equal or exceed the AFM-calculated landing distance for a dry runway. For a wet runway, increase the required distance by an additional 15% (equivalently, divide the runway by 1.92). Put the other way around: minimum dry field length is at least 1.4 times the calculated air-and-ground distance, and wet field length at least 1.61 times. Careful planning may mean limiting payload or fuel to protect the margin at the destination.
Wind, wake, and the go-around trigger
Compare the crab and wing-low methods of crosswind correction on approach (AA.III.B.K3).
Crab — a coordinated heading change into the wind that keeps the wings-level ground track on the extended centerline; the crab must be removed just prior to touchdown with rudder to align the longitudinal axis, or the gear takes side loads (AFH ch. 9)
Wing-low (sideslip) — upwind wing lowered, opposite rudder holding the axis on centerline; touchdown occurs on the upwind main gear first, then the downwind main, then the nose, with aileron into the wind increasing toward full deflection in the rollout
In multiengine airplanes the two are typically used in conjunction — crab down final, transition to the sideslip prior to touchdown (AFH ch. 13)
Speed: adjust the approach for wind and gusts with VREF plus an additive (e.g., VREF+5) per your operator or AFM (AFH ch. 13) — and never below VREF
How do you manage wake turbulence on approach and landing (AA.III.B.R2)?
From PHAK ch. 5: when landing behind another aircraft, approach above the preceding aircraft's path and touch down beyond the point where its wheels contacted the runway. Vortices are strongest when the generator is heavy, clean, and slow, sink below the flight path, and drift with the wind — about 1,000 feet per minute in a 10-knot wind, which can push a departed aircraft's vortices onto a parallel runway or hold them over your touchdown zone. If the other aircraft's touchdown point is uncertain, roughly 3 minutes of spacing provides a margin. Fold the geometry into the approach briefing, not the flare.
When is the go-around no longer a judgment call (AA.III.B.S14)?
When the approach cannot be completed within the tolerances of this Task — configuration and speed ±5 knots on a stabilized path to a touchdown inside −250/+500 feet of the aiming point — or when any other condition would make the approach or landing unsafe. The evaluation gate is the AFH's 500-foot check: stabilized there or go around. The maneuver itself, its callouts, and the LAHSO complication are Task III.J; what this Task grades is that the decision is timely — made at the trigger, not after the float has eaten your touchdown zone.
What runway markings and lighting knowledge does this Task expect (AA.III.B.K4)?
Three markings/lighting items your standards are literally written against:
Runway aiming point markings — anchor the −250/+500-foot touchdown window; where markings are absent, the 750-to-1,500-foot band from the threshold applies instead (AA.III.B.S10)
Displaced threshold — the portion of runway behind it is available for takeoffs in either direction, or landings from the opposite direction; displacement reduces the length available for your landing (PHAK ch. 14)
Touchdown zone lights — two rows of transverse light bars disposed symmetrically about the centerline in the touchdown zone, giving you the same aiming reference at night that the painted markings give you by day (AFH glossary)
Tie each one back to the standard: they exist so the crew can put the mains down where the performance data assumes.
Task C. Glassy Water Takeoff and Climb (ASES, AMES)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with glassy water takeoff and climb.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral. Seaplane-class (ASES, AMES) Task; if a glassy water condition doesn't exist on test day, the Task is evaluated by simulating it.
Why does glassy water make the takeoff harder (AA.III.C.K4)?
Glassy water works against me in two ways (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4):
Increased drag: the smooth surface can feel like suction between the water and the floats, maintaining a continuous drag force that can prevent accelerating the last few knots to lift-off speed. A little surface roughness actually helps break the contact by introducing turbulence and air bubbles under the float bottoms.
No height cues once airborne: the lack of visual cues to height above the water is dangerous unless a positive rate of climb is maintained — I can fly back into the water without ever seeing it coming.
Describe the glassy water takeoff technique.
Identical to a normal takeoff until the seaplane is on the step and nearly at flying speed (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4). Then, to break the water's grip:
Apply enough aileron to lift one float just out of the water, and let the airplane continue accelerating on the step of the other float until lift-off
Allow the seaplane to turn slightly in the direction the aileron is held rather than holding opposite rudder — this eliminates considerable aerodynamic drag
Don't lift the wing so far that the opposite wing contacts the water
After lift-off, establish a positive rate of climb to prevent inadvertently flying back into the surface
The seaplane is heavily loaded and won't get on the step. What technique can help?
I rock the seaplane onto the step with timed elevator pressure, if conditions aren't excessive (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4):
From the highest nose-up point of the plow, with full back elevator, decrease back pressure — the nose drops if the seaplane is on the verge of the step.
When the nose starts back up, reinforce the rise with firm back pressure, and repeat.
After several cycles the nose rides higher and speed builds; then push the elevator well forward and hold it — the seaplane flattens onto the step, and the controls ease back to neutral.
Why it happens: at maximum weight the floats sink deeper, wetting more surface and adding water drag, so the seaplane may sit in a plowing position without developing enough hydrodynamic lift for the step. The careful pilot always plans for aborting the takeoff (AA.III.C.R2a).
How do you plan for a potential engine failure during a glassy water takeoff and climb (AA.III.C.R2b)?
I brief the plan before power comes in — like the abort point, it can't be worked out after the failure:
Where the usable water ahead is, and what shoreline features could substitute as height references — the ch. 6 illusion mitigations
That a positive rate of climb is confirmed before anything else — without it I can fly back into an invisible surface (ch. 4)
Glassy water makes that plan uniquely demanding: the handbook's glassy landing technique is flown with power — touchdown attitude, no more than 150 fpm of descent, about 10 knots above stall (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6) — and a failed engine takes that option away over a surface with no height cues. That is why the ACS pairs the abort plan with planning for engine failure in the takeoff/climb phase.
Any way to improve a glassy surface before takeoff?
Roughen it yourself: taxi around in a circle so your wake spreads and reflects from shorelines, creating a slightly rougher surface that both helps the floats break free during takeoff and provides some visual depth (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4).
What are the graded skills and tolerances for this Task?
Beyond the standard crew/checklist/radio items (AA.III.C.S1, S2):
Water rudders: retracted (S6)
Power: set and confirm takeoff power (S7), avoiding excessive water spray on the propellers (S8)
Directional control and attitude: maintain an appropriate planing attitude, correcting for porpoising, skipping, and increases in water drag (S9, S10)
Lift-off: use appropriate technique considering surface conditions (S11)
Climb: adjust power and pitch to hold the appropriate climb airspeed/V-speed ±5 knots for each climb segment (S12)
Flaps: retract after a positive rate of climb is verified, or per manufacturer/operator procedures (S13)
Noise abatement: as practicable (S14)
What is the amphibian-specific risk on a water takeoff (AA.III.C.R6)?
Gear position. An amphibious airplane taking off from water must have the wheels retracted — the ACS carries "gear position in an amphibious airplane" as a standing risk element across every seaplane takeoff and landing Task, and the takeoff configuration verification (AA.III.C.S4) is where you prove it. Make gear position an explicit checklist response and callout, not an assumption, every time the surface changes between pavement and water.
Task D. Glassy Water Approach and Landing (ASES, AMES)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with glassy water approach and landing.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral. Seaplane-class (ASES, AMES) Task; simulated if a glassy condition doesn't exist on test day.
Why is glassy water frequently more dangerous than it looks (AA.III.D.K4)?
It removes your height perception — the lack of surface features makes depth perception very difficult even for experienced seaplane pilots. The mirror surface reproduces clouds and shore features in convincing detail, and in crystal-clear water the surface itself is invisible — pilots may inadvertently judge height off the bottom of the lake (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6). The consequences of misjudging: flare too high and stall — the seaplane pitches down, hits on the float bows, and can flip; flare too late or not at all — it flies into the water at speed, drives the bows under, and flips. There's also a physical effect: the smooth surface increases wetted drag at touchdown, tugging the nose down — easily controlled with back pressure if you expect it.
Describe the glassy water landing technique.
When visual references are inadequate, land on instruments-and-attitude, not judgment of height (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6):
Perform a normal approach but prepare as though intending to land well above the surface — for example, around 200 feet above it when no current altimeter setting is available
At that target altitude, raise the nose to the touchdown attitude and set power for a descent of no more than 150 fpm at approximately 10 knots above stall speed
Maintain that attitude, airspeed, and descent rate all the way to the water — do not flare; change power only if airspeed or descent rate deviates
Always perform glassy water landings with power
The long shallow glide consumes considerable distance — be certain there's room for the glide, touchdown, and water run.
What happens at and after touchdown — and why must you not chop the power immediately?
At contact, apply gentle back pressure to hold the same pitch attitude. Close the throttle only after the seaplane is firmly on the water, verified through three senses: you see a slight nose-down pitch (and perhaps spray), hear the water against the floats, and feel the deceleration (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6). The accident case the handbook cites: a skip occurs, the pilot chops power — and the seaplane is actually 10 to 15 feet in the air, stalling onto the surface. After settling into a displacement taxi, complete the after-landing checklist and lower the water rudders.
How can you restore visual references instead of flying the no-flare profile?
Two techniques restore a real height reference (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6): land near the shoreline, using shore features to gauge altitude, after first inspecting from a safe altitude that the water is deep enough and free of obstructions; or make the final approach over land, crossing the shoreline at the lowest safe altitude so a reliable height reference carries to within a few feet of the surface. An accurately set altimeter can also let you start the stabilized 150-fpm descent closer to the surface, shortening the total landing distance.
What are the graded skills and tolerances for this Task?
The ACS grades seven skill elements for this Task (AA.III.D.S3–S9):
Ensure the landing gear and water rudders are retracted as applicable (S3)
Select the approach and landing path considering the landing surface, visual attitude references, water depth, and collision hazards (S4)
Establish the recommended configuration, airspeed, and trim (S5)
Maintain a stabilized approach and recommended airspeed ±5 knots (S6)
Make smooth, timely power and control adjustments to hold pitch attitude and rate of descent to touchdown (S7)
Maintain directional control throughout (S8)
Contact the water in a proper pitch attitude, slowing to idle taxi speed (S9)
Why is 'water depth' explicitly in the approach-path skill element (AA.III.D.S4)?
Because glassy conditions and clear water go together: when the surface is invisible, the lake bottom becomes both a false height reference and a real hazard. The handbook's shoreline-landing technique carries the same caveat — be certain the water is sufficiently deep and free of obstructions by inspecting from a safe altitude first (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6). A stabilized 150-fpm descent to touchdown assumes the touchdown zone is actually water you can use, and shallow areas or submerged obstructions are found before the approach, never during it.
Where does the go-around fit into a glassy water approach (AA.III.D.R2)?
Same discipline as every water landing: whenever landing conditions are not satisfactory — conflicts with aircraft, vessels, or swimmers, hazards on the water, an unstabilized approach — execute a go-around, climb to a safe altitude while running the go-around checklist, evaluate, and re-approach (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6). On glassy water specifically, honor the profile: if the stabilized attitude/descent-rate combination is broken low over an invisible surface, the safe move is power and climb, not salvage. The full maneuver is Task III.J.
Task E. Rough Water Takeoff and Climb (ASES, AMES)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with rough water takeoff and climb.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral. Seaplane-class (ASES, AMES) Task; simulated if a rough water condition doesn't exist on test day.
What is the objective of a rough water takeoff (AA.III.E.K4)?
The objective matches a rough- or soft-field takeoff in a landplane (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4):
Transfer the weight to the wings as soon as possible
Get airborne at minimum airspeed
Accelerate in ground effect to a safe climb speed
Climb out
The ACS grades that same profile: establish the proper attitude and airspeed, then lift off at minimum airspeed and accelerate to the appropriate climb airspeed/V-speed ±5 knots before leaving ground effect (AA.III.E.S11). One mercy of physics: wind strong enough to roughen the water also produces aerodynamic lift earlier, so the run is usually short.
Describe the rough water takeoff technique.
From FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4:
Open the throttle to takeoff power just as the floats begin rising on a wave — this keeps the float bows from digging in and helps keep spray away from the propeller (AA.III.E.S8)
Hold a little more back elevator pressure than on smooth water, raising the nose to keep the bows clear
Once on the step, the seaplane can bounce crest to crest, nose rising with each bounce so each successive wave hits harder — counter with smooth elevator pressure toward a fairly constant pitch attitude that lets the seaplane skim across the wave tops as speed builds
Maintain control pressure to keep the bows from being pushed under and to keep the airplane from being thrown into the air at a high pitch angle and low airspeed (stall prevention, AA.III.E.R4)
When should a rough water takeoff not be attempted?
Two go/no-go rules from FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4:
Wavelength versus float length: if the wavelength is less than half the float length, at least two waves support the seaplane at all times; if the wavelength is longer than the floats, only one wave supports it — creating dangerous pitching motions, and takeoff should not be attempted
Wave height: as a general rule, if waves measure more than half the height of the floats from keel to deck (trough to crest), takeoffs should not be attempted except by expert seaplane pilots
The overall decision weighs seaplane size, wing loading, power loading, and — most importantly — pilot ability.
How does current interact with wind to roughen the water?
The waves respond to the relative velocity between water and wind. A 10-knot current flowing against a 15-knot wind gives a relative velocity of 25 knots — waves as high as a 25-knot wind would raise on still water (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4). Read the water, not just the windsock, when deciding whether the surface is takeoff-able and which direction to run.
What is the climb-out schedule after a rough water lift-off?
Retract the flaps only after a positive rate of climb is established and a safe altitude has been achieved (AA.III.E.S12), then maintain takeoff power to a safe maneuvering altitude before setting climb power (S13). This follows liftoff at minimum airspeed and acceleration in ground effect to climb speed ±5 knots (S11) — the rough-water profile deliberately keeps energy and lift margin in hand longer than a normal takeoff. Directional control and wind-drift correction are graded throughout (S9), along with planing attitude and correction for porpoising and skipping (S10).
What planning items does the ACS attach to this takeoff (AA.III.E.R1, R2, R6)?
Takeoff path selection against aircraft limitations, available distance, surface conditions, and wind — including the wavelength and wave-height rules above
Abnormal operations planning: the rejected takeoff (where on the run you can still close the throttle and stop in the water remaining) and a potential engine failure in the takeoff/climb phase — briefed before power comes in, exactly as Task III.I demands on a runway
Gear position in an amphibian — wheels up for water, verified as part of the takeoff configuration (S4)
Task F. Rough Water Approach and Landing (ASES, AMES)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with rough water approach and landing.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral. Seaplane-class (ASES, AMES) Task; simulated if a rough water condition doesn't exist on test day.
Why is there no single 'rough water landing procedure' (AA.III.F.K4)?
Because "rough" is subjective and relative: water that troubles small boats may be fine for a large seaplane, and conditions harmless to an experienced pilot in a big hull can be dangerous to a smaller seaplane or newer pilot. Too many variables affect the surface — wind direction and speed weighed against the water's condition — for one ideal profile (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6). In most instances the approach itself is flown the same as any other water landing; what changes is the touchdown attitude, the power management, and the standing readiness to go around (AA.III.F.S9).
Describe the rough water touchdown technique.
Touch down at a somewhat flatter pitch attitude than usual — this prevents the seaplane being tossed back into the air at dangerously low airspeed, and helps the floats slice through the wave tops rather than slamming against them
Reduce power as the seaplane settles into the water
Apply back pressure as it comes off the step to keep the float bows from digging into a wave face
(FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6.) The ACS grades exactly this: contact the water at the correct pitch attitude and touchdown speed (AA.III.F.S8), with smooth, timely power and control application during the landing (S9), and positive after-landing control (S10).
A large wave throws you back into the air before you're off the step. Now what?
Be ready with full power to go around (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6). The skill element writes the mindset into the standard: remain alert for a go-around should conditions be too rough (AA.III.F.S9) — the go-around option stays armed through the entire water run, not just the approach. One intermediate option when the surface looks marginal: level off just above the water with enough power to hold a rather flat attitude, wait until conditions appear more acceptable, then reduce power to touch down; if severe bounces occur after touchdown, add power and lift off to find a smoother spot.
Why avoid downwind and crosswind landings on rough water?
Downwind: rough water usually means strong wind, and wind velocity added to normal landing speed produces a much higher groundspeed — excessive stress on the floats, increased nose-down tendency at touchdown, and a prolonged water run (more kinetic energy to dissipate). As the seaplane slows, weathervaning plus wave motion creates an unstable situation. Upwind means lower touchdown speed, shorter run, less pounding
Crosswind: the pitching and rolling from the rough surface increases the likelihood of the wind lifting a wing and flipping the seaplane (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6)
Wind-correction technique remains a graded knowledge element (AA.III.F.K3), and the airspeed standard carries a gust factor applied, ±5 knots (AA.III.F.S6).
What are the graded skills for this Task besides the touchdown?
Ensure landing gear and water rudders are retracted as applicable (AA.III.F.S3 — gear position in an amphibian is the standing risk, R6)
Select the approach and landing path considering the landing surface, visual attitude references, water depth, and collision hazards (S4)
Establish the recommended configuration, airspeed, and trim on a stabilized approach (S5)
Hold recommended airspeed with gust factor applied, ±5 knots (S6)
Make smooth, timely, correct power and control adjustments to maintain proper attitude and rate of descent to touchdown (S7)
How do you judge whether the water is landable at all before committing?
Apply the same limits that govern the rough water takeoff, because they bound what you can get back out of (and survive touching down on): waves more than half the float height from keel to deck are for expert pilots only, and a wavelength longer than the floats produces dangerous pitching (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4). Add the current-versus-wind effect — a 10-knot current against a 15-knot wind builds waves like a 25-knot wind on still water — and weigh seaplane size, wing loading, power loading, and your own ability. The approach-path selection element (AA.III.F.R1) is graded on exactly this assessment.
Task G. Confined Area Takeoff and Maximum Performance Climb (ASES, AMES)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with confined area takeoff and maximum performance climb.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral. Seaplane-class (ASES, AMES) Task.
What two scenarios does the confined area takeoff Task simulate, and must you fly both?
ACS Appendix 3 defines two required scenarios: a takeoff and spiral climb, and a straight-ahead takeoff and climb from a narrow waterway with obstructions at either end. The evaluator must assess both. In multiengine seaplanes or amphibians with VX within 5 knots of VMC, you and the evaluator may brief using VY or the manufacturer's recommendation if more appropriate for the demonstration.
What are the climb standards and tolerances (AA.III.G.S11–S14)?
Rotate and lift off at the appropriate airspeed and accelerate to the recommended obstacle clearance airspeed or VX, using appropriate bank angles to maintain terrain clearance as needed (S11)
Climb at the recommended airspeed — or absent one, VX, +5/−0 knots — until the obstacle is cleared or the airplane is 50 feet above the surface; where VX is within 5 knots of VMC in a multiengine airplane, VY or the manufacturer's recommendation is acceptable (S12)
After clearing all obstacles, accelerate to VY ±5 knots (S13)
Retract flaps and adjust power as needed to maintain VY or the appropriate climb airspeed ±5 knots to a safe maneuvering altitude (S14)
What technique lets you take off from a body of water that's too small for a straight run (AA.III.G.K5)?
Begin the takeoff run headed downwind, then turn to complete the takeoff into the wind: put the seaplane on the step while downwind, then make a step turn into the wind to finish the takeoff (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4). Two cautions apply: during the turn, wind and centrifugal force act in the same direction and could tip the seaplane over, and the water area must permit a wide step turn with winds light enough to attempt it.
Why do confined areas so often pair with glassy water and density altitude problems?
Because the same surrounding high terrain that confines the area also blocks the wind, producing a glassy surface — and when combined with high density altitude, conditions can turn dangerous even though the landing was easy (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4). Mitigations the handbook lists:
If the departure path crosses high terrain, circle back over the water after takeoff to gain altitude
If temperatures rose since landing, re-figure performance for the new density altitude — or wait for cooler morning air
Consider leaving cargo or passengers behind and making a second trip rather than ending the takeoff in the trees
Density altitude hits a seaplane doubly: high, hot, and humid air robs the engine and propeller of thrust and the wings of lift while water drag still has to be overcome (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 5).
How does rejected takeoff planning work on a confined waterway (AA.III.G.R2)?
The same discipline as Task III.I with the geometry tightened: before power comes in, know the point on the water beyond which you can no longer close the throttle and stop in the distance remaining — remembering that FAA-approved landplane thinking doesn't transfer cleanly, since water drag, waves, and current change the stopping picture. The handbook's standing advice applies: the careful seaplane pilot always plans ahead and considers the possibility of aborting the takeoff (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 4), and the ACS pairs the reject with planning for a potential engine failure in the takeoff/climb phase (R2b) — in a confined area, that plan should include whether a climbing turn back over the water beats straight ahead into terrain.
What baseline seaplane-takeoff skills does this Task still grade?
The full stack from the normal water takeoff, under tighter geometry:
Checklists and crew coordination in a timely manner (AA.III.G.S1)
Radio calls (S2)
Flight controls positioned for the wind (S3)
Takeoff configuration verified, including gear up in an amphibian (S4, R6)
Area cleared and takeoff path selected for surface conditions and collision hazards (S5)
Water rudders retracted (S6)
Takeoff power set and confirmed (S7)
Spray kept off the propellers (S8)
Directional control with wind-drift correction (S9)
Planing attitude with porpoising/skipping corrections (S10)
Noise abatement as practicable (S15)
Task H. Confined Area Approach and Landing (ASES, AMES)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with confined area approach and landing.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral. Seaplane-class (ASES, AMES) Task.
What two scenarios does the confined area landing Task simulate?
This Task simulates two landing scenarios: an approach and landing to a small pond requiring a spiral approach, wings-level landing, and step turn upon landing; and a straight-ahead approach and landing to a narrow waterway with obstructions at either end. The evaluator must assess both landing situations (ACS Appendix 3).
What is the first question to answer before landing in a confined area (AA.III.H.R7)?
Whether it is possible to get out again. For most seaplanes the takeoff run is much longer than the landing run, and the ACS carries the risk explicitly: "landing in an area or in conditions where a takeoff/climb may not be possible." Before touchdown, evaluate the wind and surface conditions expected at departure time — landing into a stiff breeze on small waves may mean waking up to calm, glassy water that won't release the floats — and the density altitude at departure, since a cool-morning landing can precede a hot-afternoon takeoff with a serious performance loss (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6).
The takeoff-side mitigations (circle climb over the water, wait for cooler air, offload) are Task III.G's material.
What must the pre-landing inspection of the area cover (AA.III.H.S4)?
Carefully inspect the landing area from altitude for shallow areas, obstructions, and other hazards — after touchdown is not the time to discover the area is smaller or less usable than supposed. The evaluation must include approach and departure paths: terrain that rises faster than the seaplane can climb matters both for the eventual takeoff and for a go-around during the landing; if climbout over terrain isn't easily within the airplane's capability, be certain there's room for a gentle turn back over the water (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6). The skill element frames this as considering, in selecting the approach and landing path:
The landing surface
Visual attitude references
Water depth
Collision hazards
What are the tolerances for the confined area approach and landing?
Maintain a stabilized approach and recommended airspeed with gust factor applied, ±5 knots (AA.III.H.S6)
Touch down smoothly at the recommended airspeed and pitch attitude, beyond and within 100 feet of a specified point/area (S8) — the tightest touchdown standard in Area III, because a confined area gives away nothing
Maintain directional control and appropriate crosswind correction throughout the approach and landing (S9)
Supporting skills:
Checklists and crew coordination (S1)
Radio calls (S2)
Gear and water rudders retracted as applicable (S3, with amphibian gear position as risk R6)
Recommended configuration/airspeed/trim on a stabilized approach (S5)
Smooth, timely power and control adjustments for attitude and descent rate to touchdown (S7)
How does the go-around calculus change in a confined area (AA.III.H.R2)?
The escape must be planned against the terrain before the approach begins. Whenever landing conditions are unsatisfactory, go around, climb to a safe altitude while executing the go-around checklist, and re-approach — but in a confined area, remember it is often best to make a gentle climbing turn back over the water rather than climbing toward a shoreline with rising terrain (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6). If the spiral-approach geometry of this Task was needed to get in, assume the go-around needs the same spiral thinking to get out — decided at the first sign the approach won't work, not at the trees.
Why does this Task keep 'energy management' in its knowledge elements (AA.III.H.K1)?
Because the confined area removes the buffer that normally absorbs energy errors. A stabilized approach at the recommended airspeed plus gust factor is what makes a touchdown beyond and within 100 feet of a point achievable at all — excess speed floats the touchdown deep into a landing area that has no "deep," and a low-energy approach over an obstruction at the water's edge has no margin to arrest sink. The stabilized approach concepts are developed at transport depth under Task III.B; here they're applied at their least forgiving scale.
Task I. Rejected Takeoff
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with a rejected takeoff.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
Give the expanded definition of V1 from AC 120-62.
V1 is the speed selected for each takeoff, based on approved performance data and specified conditions. It represents:
The maximum speed by which a rejected takeoff assures a safe stop within the remaining runway or runway and stopway
The minimum speed which assures the takeoff can be safely completed within the remaining runway, or runway and clearway, after failure of the most critical engine at the designated speed
The single speed that permits either a successful stop or a continued takeoff when operating at the minimum allowable field length for a particular weight
The operational bite: the go/no-go decision is made before V1 so that deceleration can begin no later than V1. If braking has not begun by V1, the decision to continue has been made by default (AC 120-62, "Takeoff Safety Training Aid," quoted in AFH ch. 16).
What can justify a reject below 80 knots that would not justify one above it?
Most manufacturers have operators identify a low-speed regime (80 knots and below) and a high-speed regime (100 knots and above) (AFH ch. 16):
Low-speed regime: abort for any malfunction or abnormality, actual or suspected
High-speed regime: reject only for catastrophic malfunctions or life-threatening situations — engine failure, fire or smoke, a takeoff warning system, loss of directional control — weighing the threat against the risk of an overrun
AA.III.I.K1 lists the classic triggers: takeoff warning systems, powerplant failure, other systems warnings or failures. AFH adds unsuspected equipment on the runway, bird strike, blown tires, ATC instruction, and significant abnormalities like split airspeed indications. Above the split, most of that list becomes a reason to continue and handle it airborne.
Why are high-speed rejects the accident-makers (AA.III.I.R5)?
Although only about 2 percent of rejected takeoffs are high-speed, aborts above 120 knots account for the vast majority of RTO overrun accidents (AFH ch. 16). The physics behind it:
Delaying the maneuver just one second beyond V1 adds 4 to 6 knots on average
Crews require 3 to 7 seconds to identify an impending RTO and execute the maneuver
Ill-advised reject decisions and improper technique together contribute to a majority of takeoff-related commercial aviation accidents worldwide
A brief moment of indecision is the difference between stopping on pavement and running off the end — which is why the decision architecture is briefed before brake release, not improvised at 130 knots.
Describe the stopping procedure for a rejected takeoff (AA.III.I.S3).
The stopping sequence (AFH ch. 16):
Maximum braking immediately, simultaneously retarding the throttles
Spoiler extension
Thrust reverser deployment, following in short sequence
This is not normal after-landing braking; treating it like one is the documented failure mode. Brakes provide the most effective stopping force; delaying them when every second counts stretches the stopping distance. Cautions:
Differential braking for directional control diminishes total braking effectiveness — tire friction is shared between stopping and steering
A blown tire eliminates braking on that wheel and can cascade to adjacent tires
The ACS skill: promptly reduce power and maintain positive aircraft control, using drag and braking devices as appropriate, to come to a stop (AA.III.I.S3).
What are minimum, maximum, and reduced V1?
Minimum V1 — the lowest permissible V1 from which the takeoff can still be safely completed after critical engine failure at the designated speed
Maximum V1 — the highest V1 at which a reject can be initiated and the airplane stopped within the remaining runway or runway and stopway
Reduced V1 — a V1 below maximum (or normal) V1 but above minimum V1, selected to shrink the required RTO stopping distance — used chiefly to offset degraded stopping capability on wet or contaminated runways, while buying roughly 2 seconds of recognition time for the crew (AC 120-62 terms, reproduced in AFH ch. 16)
Why might your accelerate-stop data flatter you on the day it matters (AA.III.I.K4, R4)?
FAA-approved takeoff data reflects performance demonstrated in ideal conditions — a clean, dry runway with maximum braking — and does not credit reverse thrust in computing stopping distance (AFH ch. 16). Real stopping performance can be degraded by, among others:
Reduced runway friction and contaminants — rubber and oily residue, standing water, snow, slush, ice
Wind direction and velocity, and low air density
Flap and bleed configuration
Underinflated or failing tires, deficient brakes or RTO autobrakes, inoperative anti-skid
Penalizing MEL or CDL items
Pilot technique and proficiency
This is why the runway selection risk element (AA.III.I.R1) is graded against limitations, available distance, surface conditions, and wind — the paper number is a ceiling, not a promise.
What is the single-engine versus multiengine skill standard for this Task?
ASEL/ASES: reject the takeoff if the powerplant failure occurs prior to becoming airborne (AA.III.I.S1) — there is no continue option
AMEL/AMES: reject if the powerplant failure occurs at a point where the rejected takeoff procedure can be initiated and the airplane can be safely stopped on the remaining runway/waterway (AA.III.I.S2)
Test-day safety note from ACS Appendix 3: in a multiengine airplane, the simulated powerplant failure must be introduced before reaching 50 percent of VMC.
The airplane has stopped. What now (AA.III.I.K2, S4)?
Coordinate with the crew: complete the appropriate procedures, checklists, and radio calls in a timely manner (AA.III.I.S4)
Treat it as an emergency: a rejected takeoff should be perceived as an emergency (AFH ch. 16)
Keep priorities straight: the primary objective is not necessarily to stop in the shortest distance, but to maintain control of the airplane as it decelerates; in some situations it is preferable to continue into the overrun area under control rather than risk directional control loss, landing gear collapse, or tire/brake failure trying to stop short (AFH ch. 13)
What is the purpose of the speed callout at the low-speed/high-speed transition?
SOPs should include a speed callout during the transition from the low-speed to the high-speed regime (AFH ch. 16). It does four jobs at once:
Reminds both pilots the critical decision window is opening
Provides a last opportunity to crosscheck instruments and verify airspeed
Confirms adequate takeoff thrust is set
Performs a pilot incapacitation check through the challenge-and-response ritual — a callout that goes unanswered is itself a reject trigger
Fly your operator's phrasing; the point is that the callout is a checklist item disguised as a number.
Why do some airplanes inhibit warnings during the high-speed portion of the takeoff roll?
To keep the crew from trading a manageable airborne problem for an unnecessary high-speed reject: some manufacturers inhibit aural or visual malfunction warnings of non-critical equipment beyond a preset speed to prevent overreaction and a risky high-speed RTO when a safer option is to take the non-critical malfunction into the air (AFH ch. 16). Know your type's inhibit logic — it is part of the answer to "what would make you reject at 130 knots?" because the airplane has already filtered the list for you.
Deep Dive
The decision architecture
The RTO is decided in the briefing, executed from memory, and reviewed with the checklist. The examiner's real question underneath every element is: who decides, on what triggers, by when, and what happens in the first two seconds.
Who makes the reject decision, and where was it actually made?
The pilot flying (pilot in command) makes the decision to continue or reject a takeoff for any reason, even though the pilot monitoring watches the engine instruments throughout the roll; a reject decision requires immediate retarding of the thrust levers (AFH ch. 16). But the decision criteria were fixed before brake release: the ACS-required takeoff briefing covers abnormal or emergency procedures prior to or after reaching decision speed (V1 or VMC) and what each crewmember does (ACS Appendix 3). On the roll you are not deciding what justifies a reject — you are pattern-matching against a briefed list, which is what makes a 1-to-2-second response physically possible.
What does the FAA say would most improve RTO safety?
Five measures stand out — useful when the examiner asks how operators manage this risk (AFH ch. 16):
SOPs advancing the expanded V1 definitions, including progressive callouts marking the low-to-high-speed transition
CRM training that sharpens recognition of emergency versus abnormal situations
Crews carefully considering factors that compromise published performance data
Expanded practical training in the proper use of brakes, throttles, spoilers, and reverse thrust during RTO demonstrations
Manufacturers eliminating non-critical malfunction warnings during the roll at preset speeds
Where else does Task III.I show up in ATP and type-rating testing?
Task III.I is one of the load-bearing Tasks of the ACS, showing up across certificate actions (Appendix 1):
An AMEL type rating tests Area III Tasks A, B, I, and J (sea classes test all of Area III)
Removing a Second-in-Command Required limitation requires demonstrating single-pilot competency on Area III Tasks including Task I
Center-thrust limitation removal requires Task III.I in a multiengine airplane with a published VMC
If your certificate action involves a multiengine airplane, plan on flying this maneuver.
How does the accelerate-stop picture differ in a light twin versus a transport jet?
Light twin: accelerate-stop distance is typically advisory data in the AFM/POH — it becomes a limitation only when published in the limitations section, and no regulation requires the runway to equal or exceed it. Experienced multiengine pilots still treat runway length of at least accelerate-stop distance as a matter of safety and good operating practice (AFH ch. 13).
Transport jet: the picture inverts — V1 exists precisely because the takeoff data ties decision speed, field length, and engine-out continuation together, and your operator's performance system enforces it on every takeoff (AFH ch. 16).
If your checkride is in a jet, answer from the V1 framework; if it is in a piston twin, know that the "balanced" guarantee may not exist in your AFM at all.
Task J. Go-Around/Rejected Landing
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with a go-around/rejected landing.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What are the ATP skill standards for a go-around/rejected landing?
Make a timely decision to go around or reject the landing (AA.III.J.S1)
Apply the appropriate power setting for the flight condition and establish the pitch attitude for the desired performance (AA.III.J.S2)
Establish a positive rate of climb and the appropriate airspeed/V-speed, ±5 knots (AA.III.J.S3)
Configure and trim the airplane when appropriate (AA.III.J.S4)
Make radio calls as appropriate (AA.III.J.S5)
Maintain the ground track, heading, or course appropriate for the conditions, or as specified by ATC or the evaluator (AA.III.J.S6)
Complete the appropriate procedures and checklists in a timely manner (AA.III.J.S7)
How is this maneuver set up on the ATP practical test?
From ACS Appendix 3:
Initiated at approximately 50 feet above the runway or landing area, approximately over the runway threshold — this is a rejected landing from the flare window, not a missed approach at minimums
Instrument conditions need not be simulated below 100 feet above the runway
Completion of this Task may count as one of the three required landings — and wheel contact with the runway is not required
For a VFR-only type rating flown with a simulated engine failure, the failure is not initiated below the AFM/POH-recommended speeds or altitudes
The task references also include the FSB Report (type specific) — your type's Flight Standardization Board report can carry go-around training emphases that the examiner is entitled to probe.
What are the three cardinal principles of the go-around, and what changes in a jet?
Power, attitude, configuration — in that order (AFH ch. 9). The instant you decide, apply full or maximum allowable takeoff power smoothly and without hesitation; a settling airplane has inertia, and sufficient power is what stops the descent.
What changes in a jet: engine response at low rpm is slower, and there's no propeller slipstream to give instant lift at constant airspeed (AFH ch. 16) — so the power decision must come earlier, and the stabilized approach exists partly to keep the engines spooled so power is available quickly.
The ±5-knot climb speed and positive rate (AA.III.J.S3) are the graded output of getting the order right.
What situations on approach require a go-around (AA.III.J.K4)?
AFH ch. 9's list, which the ACS mirrors, plus the ACS's own addition:
ATC requirements
Unexpected hazards on the runway
Overtaking another airplane
Wind shear
Wake turbulence
Mechanical failure
An unstable approach
Inability to comply with a LAHSO clearance (the ACS's own addition)
The framing matters as much as the list: a go-around is a normal maneuver, to be practiced and perfected like any other. The assumption that an aborted landing means a botched approach "is a fallacy" — the ATP-level answer treats the go-around as a planned outcome, briefed before every landing (ACS Appendix 3 briefing items include go-around/rejected landing procedures).
Why do pilots delay the go-around decision (AA.III.J.R1, R2)?
AFH ch. 9 names the two sources:
Landing expectancy, or set — the anticipatory belief that conditions are not as threatening as they are and the approach will surely end in a safe landing
Pride — the mistaken belief that going around is an admission of failure
The maneuver is not inherently dangerous; it becomes dangerous only when delayed unduly or executed improperly, and the most critical go-around is the one started closest to the ground. That is precisely why the ATP test initiates it at 50 feet over the threshold — the examiner wants to see the decision made and flown at the worst point.
Walk through the configuration sequence, and the trap inside it (AA.III.J.S4, R4).
After power is in and the climb attitude established:
Flaps first, partially — retract landing flaps to the takeoff position (or per the manufacturer), in increments if altitude and airspeed demand, because sudden full retraction can cost enough lift to settle the airplane onto the ground
Gear after a positive rate of climb is established — and note the AFH's reasoning: full flaps usually make more drag than the gear, and if the airplane touches down during the go-around you want the gear down and locked
Trim — the airplane was trimmed for approach speed; the sudden addition of power pitches the nose up, so anticipate considerable forward pressure, rough-trim once climbing, fine-trim when stable
(AFH ch. 9.) The pitch-up-with-power trap is the same out-of-trim mechanism developed in Task V.A's stall prevention material — at 50 feet it is unforgiving.
What are the approach climb and landing climb speeds, and why do they exist?
They are the certification guarantees behind the go-around (AFH ch. 16):
Approach climb — the speed that guarantees adequate go-around performance with an inoperative engine (flown from the approach configuration)
Landing climb — the speed that guarantees the descent can be arrested and a go-around made from the final stages of landing, in full landing configuration, with maximum takeoff power on all engines
When AA.III.J.S3 says "the appropriate airspeed/V-speed, ±5 knots," these — as scheduled in your AFM for weight and configuration — are what "appropriate" means. Density altitude and wind (AA.III.J.K2) shrink the real margins those guarantees describe, which is one more reason the decision must be timely rather than late-and-low.
You accepted a LAHSO clearance and now need to go around. What was your obligation, and what do you do (AA.III.J.R8)?
Obligation: accepting "cleared to land, hold short" bound you to either exit before the intersecting runway or stop at the holding position — and to advise ATC if you cannot comply (PHAK ch. 14).
The rejected landing after acceptance is exactly why you must know the landing distance available and the LAHSO markings before accepting, and why the ACS folds "managing a go-around/rejected landing after accepting a LAHSO clearance" into this Task's risks: your climb-out now happens in the geometry of intersecting-runway traffic.
What you do:
Fly the go-around
Comply with ATC or the briefed procedure for the ground track (AA.III.J.S6)
Communicate immediately (AA.III.J.S5)
The best mitigation was upstream — do not accept a LAHSO clearance your performance or the conditions make doubtful.
The airplane touches down as you begin the go-around at 50 feet. Have you busted the maneuver?
No — on two grounds (AFH ch. 9):
Wheel contact with the runway is not required — the ACS says so explicitly (Appendix 3), so touching down doesn't bust the maneuver
During an extremely low go-around the airplane may settle onto the runway and bounce — that "is not particularly dangerous" if you keep the airplane straight and hold a constant, safe pitch attitude; with power applied, the airplane reaches flying speed quickly, and the advanced power cushions any secondary touchdown
What would bust the maneuver is chasing the bounce with pitch, or freezing the configuration sequence.
Deep Dive
The decision is the maneuver
Everything gradeable in this Task flows from AA.III.J.S1's single word "timely." The physical maneuver is takeoff-shaped and well-practiced; the accident record lives in the two seconds before it starts.
What makes a go-around decision 'timely' at ATP standards?
It is made at the trigger, not after confirmation bias has run its course. Task III.B fixes the trigger objectively: go around when the approach cannot be completed within the Task tolerances — stabilized, ±5 knots, touchdown inside −250/+500 feet of the aiming point — or for any other unsafe condition (AA.III.B.S14), with the AFH's stabilized-approach evaluation at 500 feet as the standing gate (AFH ch. 16). By the time you are floating past the touchdown window at 20 feet, "timely" has already expired: the decision points were briefed (ACS Appendix 3), and the examiner is watching whether you honor them under landing expectancy — the pull AFH ch. 9 warns about.
Why must the pilot resist pitching up immediately when the throttles come up?
Because an airplane cannot fly below stall speed and cannot climb below minimum power required speed (AFH ch. 9). At the moment of decision the airplane is trimmed nose-up for approach speed and may be decelerating; pitching for a climb before energy exists invites a stall at an altitude with no recovery room — the ACS's low-altitude stall/CFIT risk element (AA.III.J.R6). In some circumstances it is proper to briefly lower the nose to gain airspeed and get off the back side of the power curve. Power first, then attitude for the performance available, then configuration — and on airplanes with heavy control forces at maximum power, keep flying the airplane before reaching for handles (airplane control is the first consideration in this high-workload phase).
Where do you fly the airplane during the climb-out (AA.III.J.S6, R5)?
The ground track, heading, or course appropriate to the conditions, or as ATC or the evaluator specifies.
Wind correction is part of that track (AA.III.J.K3): the landing crosswind correction doesn't end at the decision — as the climb is established, turn the nose into the wind, bring the wings level, and crab to hold the extended centerline, rechecking the ground track frequently because the crosswind can vary markedly within a few hundred feet of the ground (AFH ch. 6).
Two collision-hazard geometries to name in the oral:
The aircraft or vehicle on the runway that triggered the reject — offset as your operator's procedure directs while keeping it in sight
After a LAHSO-related go-around, the intersecting-runway traffic whose protection depended on your hold-short
Radio calls come as appropriate (AA.III.J.S5), but aviate-navigate-communicate ordering holds: the ACS's distraction and task-prioritization risk (AA.III.J.R7) is aimed at crews who talk before they climb.
How does the seaplane environment reshape the go-around?
The Seaplane Handbook (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6) lists the water-specific triggers:
Conflicts with other aircraft, surface vessels, or swimmers in the landing area
Hazards on the water
Wind shear
Wake turbulence
Water surface conditions
Mechanical failure
An unstabilized approach
Climb to a safe altitude while executing the go-around checklist, then evaluate and re-approach under better conditions. The terrain nuance: it's often best to make a gentle climbing turn back over the water to gain altitude rather than climbing out over a shoreline with rising terrain or noise-sensitive areas — the same maneuver-planning that Tasks III.G and III.H demand for confined areas.
Area IV. In-flight Maneuvers
Task A. Steep Turns
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with steep turns.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What are the ATP steep turn standards, and how do they differ from the commercial maneuver?
Bank at least 45°, established solely by reference to instruments, through at least 180° of turn as specified by the evaluator (AA.IV.A.S3) — then the same thing in the opposite direction (AA.IV.A.S4)
Entry altitude ±100 feet, airspeed ±10 knots, bank ±5°, rollout on the specified heading ±10° (AA.IV.A.S6)
Entry altitude selected so the Task finishes no lower than 3,000 feet AGL (AA.IV.A.S1)
The tolerances match the commercial numbers, but everything else moved: the commercial maneuver is 50° of bank through 360° flown visually — the ATP version is flown on the gauges, and Appendix 3 adds that you must control the airplane manually, without any intervention from the pilot monitoring or the evaluator (FAA-S-ACS-11A, Task IV.A).
What entry airspeed do you use for the steep turn?
The manufacturer's recommended airspeed; if one is not available, an airspeed not to exceed maneuvering speed (VA) (AA.IV.A.S2). In a type-rating course that number comes from your AFM and the operator's maneuver profile — there is no generic answer, and quoting one for "a jet" is how you get a follow-up question you can't win. Know where your type's number comes from and why it sits below VA.
Can you use the flight director and other displays during the steep turn?
The airplane must be flown manually — no autopilot, and no help from the pilot monitoring — but Appendix 3 says the use of available aircraft instrumentation is acceptable (FAA-S-ACS-11A, App. 3). Whether the flight director stays on is between your training program and the evaluator; be ready to fly it raw-data either way. For a VFR-only type rating, the Task is flown in visual conditions instead, the area must be cleared of traffic first, and the by-reference-to-instruments requirement of AA.IV.A.S3 does not apply (App. 3).
Why does the instrument-flying literature treat any turn beyond standard rate as 'steep'?
For instrument flight the IFH calls any turn greater than standard rate steep — the exact bank angle is unimportant (IFH ch. 7). What matters is that the effects of aerodynamic forces on control change pronouncedly at progressively greater bank, so skill in cross-check, interpretation, and control must rise in proportion. The payoff the IFH names is exactly why the ATP test keeps the maneuver: practice enables smooth, quick, and confident reactions to unexpected abnormal flight attitudes under instrument conditions (IFH ch. 7) — this Task is the warm-up for Task IV.B.
Tell the energy-management story of a level steep turn (AA.IV.A.K1).
Total mechanical energy is altitude plus airspeed — potential plus kinetic — and the balance of thrust minus drag decides whether the total grows or shrinks (AFH ch. 4). Rolling to 45°+ while holding altitude forces a higher AOA so the shrunken vertical lift component still supports the airplane; the higher AOA drives up induced drag, so with fixed thrust you are now energy-negative and the airspeed decays. The fix is on the thrust levers: the power necessary to maintain constant airspeed increases as the bank and drag increase (IFH ch. 7). Power up going in, power off rolling out — done smoothly per AA.IV.A.S5.
What load factor does the maneuver put on the airplane, and what does that do to stall speed (AA.IV.A.K2d)?
A level 45° banked turn produces 1.41 G regardless of airspeed or airplane; 60° produces 2.0 G (AFH ch. 10). Stall speed rises with the square root of the load factor — the AFH's example airplane that stalls level at 50 knots stalls at 60 knots in a 45° level turn (AFH ch. 10). So at test bank the stall margin is already trimmed, and the margin between stalling speed and maneuvering speed decreases as bank increases (AFH ch. 10). That is the aerodynamics behind AA.IV.A.S7: no impending stall indication, no abnormal attitude, no structural or operating limit exceeded at any point.
How does weight change maneuvering speed (AA.IV.A.K2c)?
VA decreases as weight decreases: the PHAK's example airplane has a VA of 100 knots heavily loaded but only 90 knots with a light load, because the lightly loaded wing reaches limit load at a lower speed (PHAK ch. 8). VA itself is the maximum speed at which the structural design's limit load can be imposed — by gusts or full deflection of a control surface — without structural damage. Two caveats worth stating: VA protects one full input, one axis, one time, in smooth air — it provides no structural protection for multiple full inputs in one axis or full inputs in more than one axis at once (PHAK ch. 5). At airline weights the spread between max-landing-weight VA and max-takeoff-weight VA is real; the AFM carries the numbers.
How do you keep the steep turn coordinated (AA.IV.A.K2a)?
I correct adverse yaw with rudder throughout the turn, checking the ball in the turn-and-slip indicator or turn coordinator (IFH ch. 4).
Entry and exit: aileron deflection produces adverse yaw — the down-aileron wing makes more lift and more induced drag, so the nose initially swings opposite the turn, which is why rudder correction here is necessary for precise instrument control
Established in the turn: the faster outboard wing produces more lift and more drag, causing a slight slip that should be corrected with rudder (AFH ch. 3) — compounded by holding opposite aileron against overbanking, which feeds the same yaw
Slip vs. skid: slipping means banked too much for the rate of turn, falling toward the inside; skidding means the rate is too great for the bank, pulled toward the outside (IFH ch. 4)
AA.IV.A.S3 requires a coordinated steep turn, and R5 names uncoordinated flight as its own risk.
What is overbanking tendency, and what does it look like on instruments (AA.IV.A.K2b)?
Past shallow bank angles the airplane loses its positive/neutral stability about the longitudinal axis and keeps rolling into the turn unless deliberate opposite aileron is held (AFH ch. 10) — the outside wing flies a longer, faster arc and makes more lift. On the gauges the trap is letting it develop unnoticed: overbanking without a pitch adjustment demands ever more back pressure, until further back elevator only tightens the turn without raising the nose (IFH ch. 7). The tell is a rapid downward altimeter and VSI movement with increasing airspeed despite back pressure — a diving spiral. Recovery: shallow the bank first, hold or slightly relax elevator, reduce power if the airspeed increase is rapid (IFH ch. 7).
How do bank angle and true airspeed drive rate and radius of turn (AA.IV.A.K2e)?
At a given airspeed, increasing bank increases the rate of turn; at a given bank angle, higher true airspeed slows the turning rate and makes the radius larger (AFH ch. 3, fig. 3-14).
The transport-category consequence: at jet maneuvering speeds the same 45° of bank buys far less turn rate and a much bigger circle than the numbers you carry from piston flying — which is why the evaluator specifies the amount of turn and why the rollout takes planning. The AFH rule of thumb: lead the rollout by one-half the angle of bank (AFH ch. 3).
What spatial disorientation risks does a prolonged instrument steep turn create (AA.IV.A.R1)?
Two illusions dominate. In a prolonged, coordinated, constant-rate turn the vestibular fluid catches up and the turning sensation disappears; on the rollout you feel a turn in the opposite direction, inviting a re-entry — the setup for the graveyard spiral, where the pilot feels a level descent and pulls, tightening the spiral (IFH ch. 3). The other is the Coriolis illusion — a head movement in a different plane mid-turn (glancing at an FMS page, a dropped chart) can create the illusion of rotating on an entirely different axis (IFH ch. 3).
Mitigations: a cross-check with minimal head movement, and believing the instruments over the seat of your pants. The maneuver is coordinated throughout (AA.IV.A.S3, R5) — a slipping or skidding turn only adds conflicting cues.
Deep Dive
Flying it on the gauges
The whole maneuver compresses into pitch discipline: with the vertical lift component cut at 45°+, pitch control is what the IFH calls usually the most difficult aspect of the maneuver. These cards are the technique the tolerances are testing.
Why is pitch control the hard part of an instrument steep turn, and what does the cross-check demand?
Enter the same way as a shallower turn, but prepare to cross-check rapidly as the turn steepens — because of the greatly reduced vertical lift component, a pitch change missed for even a moment shows up as rapid movement of the altimeter, vertical speed, and airspeed needles, and the faster the rate of bank change, the more suddenly the lift changes occur (IFH ch. 7). If the cross-check is fast enough to catch the need, smooth, steady back-elevator holds altitude. The IFH's priority rule: attend to the most important task first — keep pitch attitude relatively constant and the rest of the cross-check gets easier (IFH ch. 7).
What is the power technique in the turn, and what happens on the rollout?
Power required grows with bank and drag; with practice the power settings appropriate to specific bank attitudes are learned, so adjustments happen without staring at the airspeed and power instruments (IFH ch. 7). During the recovery to straight-and-level, elevator and power must be coordinated with bank control in proportion to the changing aerodynamic forces — back pressure comes out and power comes off together (IFH ch. 7). Errors on the rollout are the mirror image of the entry: hold the back pressure too long and you balloon through the entry altitude just as the vertical lift returns.
Your pitch control keeps arriving late on steep turn entries. What does the IFH prescribe?
Roll out immediately to straight-and-level and analyze the errors — then practice shallower turns first, learn the attitude changes and control responses required, and increase the bank as the cross-check and control techniques sharpen (IFH ch. 7). In the sim that discipline matters more than pride: errors in steep turns are more exaggerated, more difficult to correct, and more difficult to analyze unless entry and recovery rates match your proficiency in the three basic instrument skills (IFH ch. 7).
Risk management the evaluator will probe
How do the collision and low-altitude risks apply to a maneuver flown at altitude (AA.IV.A.R2, R3)?
The 3,000-foot AGL floor (AA.IV.A.S1) is the CFIT and low-altitude-maneuvering mitigation baked into the skill elements — a botched steep turn decays into a stall, spiral, or spin, and the floor buys the recovery altitude (AA.IV.A.R3)
Collision hazards remain even under IFR: Appendix 3 directs that if IFR, the pilots should be situationally aware of location and any potential traffic; in the airplane that means TCAS and party-line awareness, not just a clearance (AA.IV.A.R2; FAA-S-ACS-11A, App. 3)
Distraction and task saturation (AA.IV.A.R4) hit hardest exactly when the cross-check must be fastest — brief the maneuver so nothing else competes for the scan
Task B. Recovery from Unusual Flight Attitudes
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with recovering from unusual flight attitudes solely by reference to instruments.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
How does the ATP unusual attitude Task differ from the one you flew on the instrument checkride?
The instrument-rating version tests the light-airplane IFH recoveries. The ATP version references AC 120-111 — the upset prevention and recovery training (UPRT) AC — and its skill element demands more than a recovery: identify the attitude (both nose-high and nose-low) by proper instrument cross-check and interpretation, then apply flight control, power input, and aircraft configuration in the correct sequence to return to a stabilized level flight attitude, all solely by reference to instruments (AA.IV.B.S1). The sequence is the graded item — and in a transport airplane the sequence comes from the manufacturer's procedure or the industry recovery templates, not from instinct.
What is the difference between an unusual attitude and an upset?
An upset is an airplane in flight unintentionally exceeding the parameters normally experienced in line operations or training:
Pitch greater than 25° nose up
Pitch greater than 10° nose down
Bank greater than 45°
Or within those parameters but at airspeeds inappropriate for the conditions (AC 120-111, para 1-6a)
An unusual attitude is any unintended or unexpected attitude in instrument flight; an upset has defined parameters, includes stall events and overspeeds, and centers on unintentional situations that may lead to a startle effect — in training, an instructor-set 30° bank with 15° nose-up is an unusual attitude but not an upset (AFH ch. 5).
What are the recovery priorities when the airplane departs the intended flightpath (AC 120-111)?
The recovery priorities, in order (AC 120-111, para 2-2e):
Manage the energy
Arrest the flightpath divergence
Recover to a stabilized flightpath
Two governing rules sit on top:
When an upset is precipitated by stall, recover from the stall before initiating other recovery actions — the templates assume the airplane is not stalled (AC 120-111, para 2-2e and ch. 4 NOTE, pointing to AC 120-109 for the stall procedure)
The manufacturer's procedures take precedence over the AC's templates (AC 120-111, para 4-2 NOTE)
The templates themselves were built by Airbus, ATR, Boeing, Bombardier, and Embraer to give commonality across types (para 4-1).
Walk through the Nose High Recovery Template.
Either pilot recognizes and confirms the developing situation and announces "Nose High." Then the pilot flying:
AP — DISCONNECT (expect a possible large out-of-trim condition)
A/THR — OFF
PITCH — apply as much nose-down control input as required to obtain a nose-down pitch rate (may take full nose-down; use nose-down trim if sustained column force is needed)
THRUST — adjust if required (consider reducing thrust on underwing-engine airplanes to aid the nose-down pitch rate)
When airspeed is sufficiently increasing — RECOVER to level flight, targeting a slightly nose-low attitude to avoid entering another upset
WARNING: excessive use of pitch trim or rudder may aggravate the upset or cause high structural loads (AC 120-111, Tables 1 and 3).
Nose-down input isn't producing a pitch rate in a nose-high upset. Now what?
Roll. If nose-down inputs are unsuccessful, pitch can be controlled by rolling the airplane — a large bank angle helps reduce excessively high pitch attitudes, though the bank should not normally exceed approximately 60°. Continuous nose-down elevator keeps the wing's AOA low, which keeps the normal roll controls effective, and the rolling maneuver converts the pitch rate into a turning maneuver, letting the pitch fall (AC 120-111, Table 3). As the nose approaches the horizon, roll back to wings level, check airspeed, and adjust thrust and pitch.
Walk through the Nose Low Recovery Template.
Either pilot announces "Nose Low." Pilot flying:
AP — DISCONNECT, A/THR — OFF
RECOVER from stall if required — even nose-low and slow, the airplane may be stalled at a relatively low pitch, and the fix is nose-down elevator, which may not be intuitive
ROLL in the shortest direction to wings level — do not increase positive G or feed in nose-up elevator or stabilizer trim until approaching wings level; it may be necessary to unload (reduce back pressure) to improve roll effectiveness, and past 90° of bank unloading may feel like pushing
THRUST and DRAG — adjust: airspeed low, add thrust; airspeed high, reduce thrust and extend speedbrakes if necessary
RECOVER to level flight, avoiding stall from premature recovery or excessive G loading (AC 120-111, Tables 2 and 4)
Why is the pull-up the dangerous part of a nose-low recovery?
The lift vector is both the recovery tool and the hazard: unloading is necessary to improve roll control and to prevent pointing a large lift vector toward the ground (AC 120-111, Table 4), but once the wings are level the instinct is to pull hard. The template's repeated warning: avoid stall from premature recovery or excessive G loading (AC 120-111, Tables 2 and 4).
At altitude the margins are thinner than they feel — increased G raises the low-speed buffet speed while cutting the margin below Mach buffet. A jet cruising at 51,000 feet with buffet boundaries at 0.60 and just above 0.82 Mach at 1.0 G can meet buffet at 0.73 Mach with only 1.4 G (AC 61-107, para 3-2). A smooth, measured pull is not timidity; it is the recovery.
What are the standing warnings about rudder and trim in upset recoveries?
Pitch trim: sparingly. Use it to relieve sustained column forces, not to fly the recovery — recovery to level flight may require it, but excessive use of pitch trim may aggravate the upset or result in high structural loads (AC 120-111, para 4-2b and Table WARNINGs)
Rudder: only if roll control is ineffective, and carefully — the same structural warning applies (para 4-2b)
Anticipate the trim state: disconnecting the autopilot may hand you a large out-of-trim condition at the worst possible moment (Table footnotes)
What is the pilot monitoring doing during the recovery?
MONITOR airspeed and attitude throughout the recovery and ANNOUNCE any continued divergence — the templates assign that line to the PM verbatim, and the explanation is blunt: evidence shows the PM is often in a better position than the PF to recognize adverse trends in airplane state (AC 120-111, Tables 3 and 4). Recognition itself belongs to either pilot — whoever sees it announces "Nose High" or "Nose Low." The AFH's crew-response standard adds: communicate and confirm the situation clearly and concisely, transfer control to the most situationally-aware crewmember, and work as a team through standardized interactions (AFH ch. 5).
Deep Dive
Causal factors — how transport airplanes get upset
AA.IV.B.K2 wants the causal taxonomy, and the AFH's UPRT chapter supplies it in three bins. The instrument-rating version of this discussion (vestibular illusions, instrument failures, scan breakdown) still applies wholesale — these cards add the transport-specific layer.
What environmental, mechanical, and human factors lead to upsets (AA.IV.B.K2)?
Environmental — turbulence from clear air, mountain wave, wind shear, thunderstorms and microbursts; wake turbulence from other aircraft; icing destroying the smooth flow over the airfoil (AFH ch. 5)
Mechanical — failures that directly depart normal flight: asymmetrical flaps, malfunctioning or binding flight controls, runaway trim; and malfunction or misuse of the autoflight system, where advanced automation may mask the cause of the anomaly — disengaging the autopilot and autothrottles lets the pilot control the airplane directly and possibly eliminate the cause (AFH ch. 5)
Human — VMC into IMC, diversion of attention, task saturation, sensory overload, and spatial disorientation (AFH ch. 5); the ACS compresses these into AA.IV.B.R1
The automation point carries a duty: maintain proficiency to manually fly the airplane in all flight conditions without the autopilot/autothrottles (AFH ch. 5).
Define startle and surprise, and explain why the distinction matters in training.
Startle: an uncontrollable, automatic muscle reflex — raised heart rate and blood pressure — elicited by a sudden, intense event that violates expectations (AC 120-111, para 1-6p). Surprise: an unexpected event that violates expectations and can affect the mental processes used to respond (para 1-6q).
Upsets in line operations are unplanned, so startle or surprise can adversely impact recognition or recovery — which is why instructors deliberately build both into scenarios (AC 120-111, para 2-5m). Contrast the classic unusual-attitude drill where you close your eyes and any element of surprise disappears (AFH ch. 5). The countermeasure is a recovery sequence trained until it survives the reflex.
What is 'proportional counter-response,' and how does it prevent a developing upset from becoming one?
Proportional counter-response is the timely manipulation of flight controls and thrust to manage an unintended attitude or envelope excursion, on a time scale of seconds or fractions of seconds — recognizing a developing upset and taking proportionally-appropriate avoidance action before the airplane reaches full upset parameters (AFH ch. 5).
It prevents escalation by front-running the psychological risk: the AFH warns that the sudden, surprising nature of a developing upset creates a high risk of panic and overreaction that aggravates the situation. Two completion standards formalize the idea: recognition — timely action to recognize divergence from the intended flightpath and interrupt progression toward a potential upset (AC 120-111, para 2-2d); prevention — timely action to avoid progression toward a potential upset (para 2-2c).
Why altitude changes everything (AA.IV.B.K3, R3)
High-altitude cruise is where transport upsets live, and it is the part of the envelope where both the airplane and your sim training have the least margin.
Why are large, abrupt control inputs more hazardous at high altitude?
Reduced air density reduces aerodynamic damping, overall stability, and control — at high altitude and high Mach the airplane can simultaneously exhibit slow-speed problems like Dutch roll, adverse yaw, and stall (AC 61-107, para 3-3)
The buffet margins converge: increasing gross weight or load factor raises the low-speed buffet speed and lowers the Mach buffet speed, and a maneuvering pull can erase a 1.4 G straight-and-level buffet protection entirely — any change in airspeed, bank, or gust load may reduce it to no protection (AC 61-107, para 3-2)
Thrust is scarce: thrust available varies significantly with altitude — the AC's demonstration is timing how long a 25-knot level-flight speed change takes at low versus high altitude (AC 120-111, para 2-5l) — so energy mistakes cannot be bought back quickly
What does the simulator not tell you about the G environment of a real recovery?
A pilot in a typical FSTD feels less than 10 percent of the actual airplane G, and pilot control inputs are highly influenced by load factor — so the sim systematically under-teaches how a real recovery feels (AC 120-111, App. 3, para 4). The same appendix warns that upset recoveries in an FSTD at high altitudes can be prone to oscillations that go unnoticed unless the full suite of displays is used. Say this in the oral and you demonstrate exactly the risk understanding AA.IV.B.R6 (control input errors) is probing: the airplane will load up in ways the box never showed you.
How do engine location and wing design affect the recovery (AA.IV.B.K4)?
Underwing engines — thrust produces a nose-up pitching moment, which is why the nose-high template offers reducing thrust as a tool for achieving a nose-down pitch rate, and why thrust is adjusted rather than firewalled (AC 120-111, Table 3); if pitch is being managed with trim and elevator, reducing thrust is not recommended
Swept wings — tip-stall tendency moves the center of lift forward at high AOA, and the type-specific behaviors (Task IV.C) shape what the recovery feels like
T-tails — susceptible types can reach a deep stall where the tail is immersed in the wing wake and loses effectiveness; high AOA can exist at any pitch attitude, even nose below the horizon, so the correct action — push further nose-down — may seem counterintuitive (AFH ch. 16)
The honest oral answer is type-specific: AC 120-111 directs carriers to consult the FSB report for the type, including its Training Areas of Special Emphasis on in-flight handling (para 3-2b).
What are the common errors in upset recoveries (AFH ch. 5)?
Incorrect assessment of what kind of upset the airplane is in — the templates begin with recognize-and-confirm for a reason; energy state and its rate of change drive how the PF handles the recovery (AC 120-111, Tables 3 and 4)
Failure to disconnect the wing leveler or autopilot
Failure to unload the airplane when necessary
Failure to roll in the correct direction — shortest way to wings level
Inappropriate airspeed management during the recovery
Each maps onto a risk element: assessment is AA.IV.B.R5, interpretation is R4, the control-input errors are R6.
Where do collision hazards fit into an upset recovery (AA.IV.B.R8)?
Mostly after it — a recovery can leave the airplane well off its assigned altitude and heading. The AC's training-scenario emphasis names five items to reestablish situational awareness on while returning to the desired flightpath after the recovery (AC 120-111, App. 2):
Heading
Terrain
Altitude
Other aircraft
Flight deck automation
The paired common error is losing situational awareness and failing to return to the assigned flightpath or follow ATC instructions after recovery (AC 120-111, App. 2). Two more traffic hooks: searching for traffic is on the AC's list of distractions that can lead to an upset in the first place, and overcontrolling for a TCAS resolution advisory is a pilot error that can itself create an undesired aircraft state (AC 120-111, para 2-5). Once stabilized: check TCAS, talk to ATC, get back on the clearance.
What is the regulatory hook for upset training at a part 121 carrier?
121.423, Pilots: Extended Envelope Training, whose required maneuvers include upset recovery maneuvers (121.423(b)(4)) along with manually controlled slow flight, loss of reliable airspeed, and instrument departure and arrival — all conducted in a Level C or higher full flight simulator (AC 120-111, para 3-2d). Recurrent extended envelope training on those items is required within 24 calendar months preceding service as a pilot (121.423(d)). Full-stall and stick-pusher training under the same rule is developed in the Area V tasks.
Task C. Specific Flight Characteristics
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with flight and performance characteristics unique to a specific aircraft type.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
When is the Specific Flight Characteristics Task actually tested?
Only conditionally: the evaluator only tests this Task if the airplane has specific flight characteristics identified in the Flight Standardization Board Report (FSBR) (FAA-S-ACS-11A, App. 3). If it is tested, the skill element requires proper techniques, checklists, and procedures to enter into, operate within, and recover from the specific flight situations (AA.IV.C.S1) — meaning the demonstration is flown from your type's published procedure, not improvised. The knowledge element is deliberately open-ended: all specific flight and performance characteristics associated with the aircraft (AA.IV.C.K1).
What is the FSB report's role in your training?
The FSB report is the FAA's type-specific training document; the UPRT and stall-prevention ACs both direct carriers to consult the FSB report, if available, for the specific airplane type when building training programs, and to review its Training Areas of Special Emphasis and any other recommendations on in-flight handling (AC 120-111, para 3-2b; AC 120-109, para 2-6). For this Task the FSBR is literally the exam blueprint — it is the document that decides whether the Task is tested at all and which characteristic gets flown (FAA-S-ACS-11A, App. 3).
What is Mach tuck, and what are its two causes?
A nose-down pitching tendency in the transonic range, caused principally by:
Shock-wave-induced flow separation — beginning normally near the wing root, it decreases the downwash velocity over the elevator, producing a nose-down tendency
Aft movement of the center of pressure — the CG ends up farther ahead of the aerodynamic center than in slower flight, dramatically increasing the nose-down pitch tendency (AC 61-107, para 3-2)
Mach tuck develops gradually; the condition must not be allowed to progress to where there is no longer enough elevator authority to prevent entry into a steep, sometimes unrecoverable, dive — respond to excessive airspeed, buffeting, or warning devices before extreme nose-down forces set in (AFH ch. 16).
What protects the airplane against Mach tuck and inadvertent overspeed, and what if that system fails?
Most jets capable of Mach-range flight use automated Mach tuck compensation (Mach trim); if the system is inoperative, the airplane is typically limited to a reduced maximum Mach number (AFH ch. 16). Separately, types operating near MMO carry a trim/autopilot Mach compensating device — a stick puller — to alert the pilot to excursions beyond certificated MMO; if a malfunction requires disabling it, the aircraft must be operated well below MMO per the AFM, and the AC is emphatic that the stick puller should never be disabled in normal operations (AC 61-107, para 3-2). Your type's specific system and its MEL/AFM penalties are the answer the evaluator wants.
What is Mach buffet, and how does it differ from stall buffet?
Mach buffet is airflow separation on the upper wing surface behind a shock wave — it is a function of the speed of the airflow over the wing, not necessarily the forward speed of the airplane, and the shock wave strength, rather than a stall, creates the separation (AFH ch. 16). It appears in two cruise conditions: at high-speed cruise, an overly strong shock; at low-speed cruise, high AOA accelerates the flow over the upper surface past Mach 1 locally, and the separated flow acts over a larger portion of the chord, with a more significant effect on control (AFH ch. 16). A buffet at altitude could be your first indication of a problem — you must know which side of the envelope it is coming from to respond correctly.
Explain coffin corner and the aerodynamic ceiling.
Coffin corner, the aerodynamic ceiling, is the altitude where the low-speed buffet boundary IAS and the high-speed Mach limit converge, as increasing altitude drops IAS relative to TAS: fly any faster and you exceed MMO into high-speed Mach buffet; fly any slower and the required AOA brings low-speed buffet (AFH ch. 16). At that point the airplane can neither go faster without activating the stick puller nor slower without activating the stick shaker or pusher (AC 61-107, para 3-2). This region carries loss-of-control consequences, which is why cruise altitude selection must preserve buffet margin.
How does load factor shrink your buffet margins at altitude?
Increasing gross weight or G-loading raises the low-speed buffet speed and lowers the Mach buffet speed at once. The AC's example: a turbojet at 51,000 feet and 1.0 G with MMO 0.82 may see Mach buffet slightly above MMO and low-speed buffet at 0.60 Mach — but only 1.4 G brings buffet on at the optimum 0.73 Mach, and any change in airspeed, bank angle, or gust loading can reduce that protection to none (AC 61-107, para 3-2). Mitigations:
Select a maximum cruising altitude that leaves buffet margin for maneuvering and gusts
Use the cruise maneuvering/buffet limit charts
Know the manufacturer's turbulence penetration speed, which normally gives the greatest margin between the buffets (AFH ch. 16)
How do swept-wing stall characteristics differ from a straight wing?
Lift builds more gradually with AOA, with a less well-defined maximum — so the loss of lift past the peak is less dramatic, but the high-lift condition brings high drag and possibly a high rate of descent (AFH ch. 16)
An unmodified swept wing tends to stall at the tips first because the boundary layer flows spanwise toward the tips; tip stall lets the center of lift move forward (a pitch-up tendency), worst when sweep and taper are combined (AFH ch. 16)
Manufacturers counter with twist, airfoil-section changes, and vortex generators so roll control survives an inadvertent stall entry — and airplanes without vortex generators may stall with little to no buffet (AFH ch. 16)
What is a deep stall, and which designs are susceptible?
Some T-tail configurations can reach a stall where the tail is immersed in the wing wake at very high AOA and loses effectiveness, possibly with a high descent rate. Since high AOA can occur at any pitch attitude — even nose below the horizon — the correct recovery, pushing the nose down further, may seem counterintuitive. Deep stalls may be unrecoverable, but they are easily avoided by observing published limitations; susceptible types carry stick shakers as standard, and a stick pusher automatically reduces AOA before a dangerous stall condition, or aids recovery where natural aerodynamic recovery is weak (AFH ch. 16). Avoid situations that would fire the pusher close to the ground.
What is Dutch roll, and what equipment manages it?
A coupled oscillation in roll and yaw that becomes objectionable when roll (lateral) stability is reduced relative to yaw (directional) stability. Certification requires a stability augmentation system where the tendency is objectionable or adversely affects control stability — the yaw damper, a gyro-operated system providing rudder inputs to cancel the yaw (AC 61-107, para 3-3). On swept-wing airplanes the yaw damper's ride-smoothing function is secondary; damping Dutch roll is the more vital function (AFH ch. 13). Know your type's dispatch and handling implications with the yaw damper inoperative — that is exactly the kind of item an FSBR flags.
Deep Dive
The low-speed end: speed instability
The jet wing buys its cruise performance at the low-speed end of the envelope, and the FSBR-level characteristics are not all high-Mach exotica — the most operationally common one lives on final approach.
What is speed instability in a jet, and why is it called the most important aspect of jet flying?
Speed instability is what the AFH calls one of the most important aspects of jet-airplane flying: a jet's minimum-drag speed (VMD) is typically 1.5–1.6 VS — well above a piston airplane's well-identified 1.3 VS — and flight around it produces no obvious change in feel except a lack of speed stability. A decrease in speed increases drag, which decreases speed further: a potential speed divergence. A pilot unaware of the divergence can develop a serious sink rate at a constant power setting while the pitch attitude appears normal (AFH ch. 16).
Why does high-altitude flight bring back slow-flight handling problems at high Mach numbers?
Reduced density means CAS is much slower than TAS, and AOA must increase to maintain the same lift coefficient with altitude — so a jet at high altitude and high Mach can simultaneously experience slow-speed problems: Dutch roll, adverse yaw, and stall. The thin air also reduces aerodynamic damping, overall stability, and control (AC 61-107, para 3-3). Design features — swept wings, tailored airfoils, vortex generators as boundary-layer energizers — reduce but do not eliminate these behaviors in the modern turbojet (AC 61-107, para 3-3).
What does supersonic flow over the wing produce, in one summary?
Three linked effects (AC 61-107, para 3-3):
Shock waves forming on the wing — drag rise
Aft shift in the center of lift — the nose-down pitching moment called Mach tuck
Airflow separation behind the shock waves — Mach buffet
One shock wave, three symptoms — the oral answer that connects them beats three memorized definitions.
Answering a type-specific Task without a type
The knowledge element says 'all specific flight and performance characteristics.' How do you prepare for something that open-ended?
Work from the documents the ACS itself references: the FSB Report (type specific) and the POH/AFM (FAA-S-ACS-11A, Task IV.C references). Build your list from three places:
The FSBR's Training Areas of Special Emphasis and handling recommendations (AC 120-111, para 3-2b)
The AFM's limitations and non-normal procedures tied to the characteristics above — Mach trim, yaw damper, stall protection systems
Your program's maneuver profiles for entering, operating within, and recovering from each characteristic, since the skill element grades checklist and procedure use (AA.IV.C.S1)
The risk element pairs each characteristic with its effects and applicable procedures (AA.IV.C.R1) — for every item on your list, be able to say what it does to the airplane and which procedure answers it.
What distraction and situational-awareness risks come with demonstrating a specific flight characteristic (AA.IV.C.R2)?
These characteristics announce themselves through warnings — buffet, stick shaker, stick puller, overspeed cues — and a pilot in such an event can be rapidly confronted with multiple or simultaneous visual, auditory, and tactile warnings, while an expected warning that doesn't fire can distract a pilot as much as multiple warnings can (AFH ch. 5). Separating the time-critical information from the distractions takes practice, experience, and knowledge of the airplane and its systems, plus a cross-check that catches missing or invalid cues — a failed stall warning still leaves buffet, loss of roll authority, and an unarrested descent as tells (AFH ch. 5). Task-prioritize accordingly: the margin of safety is task requirements versus pilot capabilities (AFH ch. 5) — fly the airplane first, run the associated non-normal procedure second.
Area V. Stall Prevention
Task A. Partial Flap Configuration Stall Prevention
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with stalls in a partial flap configuration.
References: AC 61-67, AC 120-109; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-25; FSB Report (type specific); POH/AFM
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
Why is this Area of Operation called Stall Prevention and not stall recovery?
Because the event being graded is the impending stall, not the break. AC 120-109 defines an impending stall as an AOA that causes a stall warning — the same thing the AC calls "approach-to-stall" or "the first indication of stall." The Task requires you to acknowledge the cue(s) and promptly recover at the first indication of an impending stall — buffet, stall horn, stick shaker (AA.V.A.S5). You are being checked on recognition and response, not on riding it into a full stall.
Your airplane calls 'airspeed low' before the shaker fires. Do you start the recovery there?
Not for this Task. AC 120-109 para 4-2a is explicit: in maneuver-based stall prevention training and checking, pilots should apply the stall recovery at stall warning as defined in para 1-7 — not at a low speed alert or low energy alert (e.g., "airspeed low, airspeed low," "speed, speed, speed," or a flashing airspeed warning cue). Starting the recovery at the low-speed alert does not satisfy the objective of training or checking the recovery procedure, so an otherwise clean recovery can be graded as the maneuver not having been performed. Two caveats worth saying out loud: in scenario-based training the opposite applies — you should return the airplane to a desired state on any low airspeed or low energy alert; and on the line, an energy alert is exactly what you want to act on, since this is a checking-context rule, not an airmanship rule.
This is the practical edge of AA.V.A.R2 (range and limitations of stall warning indicators) and R3 (stall warning awareness): know which of your annunciations is a stall warning and which is merely a low energy alert.
What are the entry-altitude and bank tolerances for the partial flap stall prevention Task?
Clear the area and pick an entry altitude that lets the recovery finish no lower than 3,000 feet AGL (non-transport category) or 5,000 feet AGL (transport category) (AA.V.A.S1)
Bank angle 15°–30°, adjusted smoothly along with pitch and power per the evaluator's instructions, to an impending stall (AA.V.A.S4)
Coordinated flight maintained in simulated or actual instrument conditions throughout the maneuver (AA.V.A.S3)
Note what is not there: no altitude-loss number, no airspeed tolerance, no heading tolerance. That absence is deliberate.
Is there a maximum altitude loss for the recovery?
No — and it is a core principle of the guidance, not an oversight. Evaluation criteria for a recovery from an impending stall should not include a predetermined value for altitude loss; criteria should instead consider the multitude of external and internal variables that affect the recovery altitude. Para 4-5 gives the three checking criteria instead:
Prompt recognition of the impending stall
Correct application of the stall recovery procedure
Recovering without exceeding the airplane's limitations
Pilots must accept that reducing AOA will normally result in altitude loss.
Walk through the stall recovery template from AC 120-109.
Autopilot and autothrottle/autothrust — disconnect. Manual control is essential in all situations.
Pitch — a) nose-down pitch control, apply until impending stall indications are eliminated; b) nose-down pitch trim, as needed.
Bank — wings level. This orients the lift vector for recovery.
Thrust — as needed. Maximum thrust is not always needed.
Speed brakes/spoilers — retract. Improves lift and stall margin.
Return to the desired flightpath with gentle action, to avoid secondary stalls.
(AC 120-109, Appendix 1, Table 1.) The Task itself requires the recovery in accordance with the POH/FM for your airplane (AA.V.A.S6) — the template is the fallback when the manufacturer has not published a procedure.
Why is thrust step 4 and not step 1?
Because thrust does not fix AOA, and in some airframes it makes the AOA worse. AC 120-109 eliminated the old profiles that emphasized immediate advancement of maximum thrust — a stall can occur at high thrust or idle thrust, so thrust is adjusted accordingly. Three airframe types react differently:
Engines below the wing: applying maximum thrust may create a strong nose-up pitching moment at low airspeed
Engines above the wing: thrust creates a helpful pitch-down tendency
Propeller-driven airplanes: thrust application increases the airflow around the wing, assisting in stall recovery
Know which of those three your airplane is.
What happens when the autopilot disconnects during a stall event, and why does it matter on a departure?
An abrupt pitch-up or trim change can occur when the autopilot unexpectedly disconnects during a stall event, adding an unexpected physical challenge exactly when you are trying to reduce AOA. In some airplanes this is aggravated by an additional pitch-up when the pilot increases thrust during the recovery (AC 120-109, para 4-2). On a departure, the airplane is already trimmed nose-up, thrust is high, and underwing engines add their own couple — so step 1 (disconnect) and step 2b (nose-down trim as needed) are doing real work, not ceremony.
What is a secondary stall warning, and what does it tell the check pilot about you?
AC 120-109 defines a secondary stall as a premature increase in AOA producing another full stall during the recovery, before a stable flight condition is established; a secondary stall warning is simply a reoccurrence of the stall warning. The AC is blunt about diagnosis: secondary stall warnings are indicative of a pilot prioritizing minimum loss of altitude over proper stall recovery, or of flight control inputs that are too aggressive.
But do not read it as an automatic bust: in some airplanes it may be difficult to determine the point where pitch can begin to be increased, and a secondary stall warning is acceptable as long as AOA is promptly reduced and the airplane's limitations are not exceeded (para 4-2a). What the evaluator is grading is whether you reduced AOA promptly and stayed inside the limits — not whether the warning chirped a second time.
What is the range and limitation of a stick shaker as a warning device?
Range: a stick shaker is an artificial stall warning device that vibrates the control column (AFH glossary) and normally activates around 107 percent of the actual stall speed (AFH ch. 16) — a thin margin, not a comfortable buffer. Part 25 requires stall warning to be clear and distinctive to the pilot in straight and turning flight (25.207(a)); AC 120-109's own definition adds that the alert — aerodynamic buffet or a synthetic cue — must give clear indications prior to a full stall to allow a pilot to prevent a full stall (para 1-7o, which points at 25.207).
Limitation: airplanes without vortex generators may stall with little to no buffet (AFH ch. 16), so aerodynamic cues can be nearly absent; malfunctioning or deferred equipment can also degrade stall protection and stick pusher systems (AC 120-109, para 4-2).
Beyond the shaker, what are the sight, sound, and feel cues of an impending stall?
AA.V.A.K2 asks for recognition using sight, sound, or feel, and AC 61-67 catalogs the raw cues:
Feel — a mushy feeling in the flight controls and less control effect as speed is reduced, attributed in part to reduced airflow over the control surfaces; kinesthesia — the sensing of changes in direction or speed of motion — warns of a decrease in speed or the beginning of a mushing
Sound — a reduction in the sound of air flowing along the fuselage; in fixed-pitch propeller airplanes, a loss of rpm in power-on conditions
Buffet — just before the stall: buffeting, uncontrollable pitching, or vibrations
Synthetic — stall warning devices that alert the pilot 4 to 8 knots prior to the onset of the stall
When one or more of these indicators is noted, initiation of a recovery should be instinctive (AC 61-67, para 103) — which is the S5 standard in different words: acknowledge the cue, recover promptly.
What are the indications of a full stall in a transport category airplane?
AC 120-109 lists any one or combination of:
An uncommanded nose-down pitch that cannot be readily arrested, possibly with an uncommanded rolling motion
Buffeting of a magnitude and severity that is a strong and effective deterrent to further increase in AOA
No further increase in pitch when the pitch control is held at the full aft stop for 2 seconds, leading to an inability to arrest descent rate
Activation of a stick pusher
On the ATP practical test you are not being asked to produce any of these — a full stall in the partial flap configuration means you missed the cue.
What is the regulatory hook for full stall training at an air carrier?
121.423, Pilots: Extended Envelope Training. It requires instructor-guided hands-on experience of recovery from full stall and stick pusher activation, if equipped (121.423(c)), conducted in a Level C or higher full flight simulator (121.423(a)). Recurrent extended envelope training is required within 24 calendar months preceding service as a pilot for the stall, upset, slow flight, unreliable airspeed, and manual departure/arrival items, and within 36 calendar months for recovery from a bounced landing (121.423(d)). AC 120-109 explicitly reflects the full stall training requirement of Public Law 111-216.
Deep Dive
Why the partial flap case is the departure and go-around case
The Task ties the configuration to a phase of flight: you must establish the takeoff or approach configuration (partial flap) as specified by the evaluator (AA.V.A.S3), and the knowledge element asks about factors that lead to a stall during takeoff or while on approach (AA.V.A.K3). This is the low-altitude, high-thrust, out-of-trim corner of the envelope — and the one where the reflex to hold altitude is strongest and most lethal.
Two elements of AA.V.A.K2 and R7 are carried by the sibling Tasks rather than repeated here: the airplane-design half of K2 — swept and tapered wings, T-tail deep stalls, vortex generators, stick pushers — is developed under Task V.B, and collision hazards including aircraft and terrain (AA.V.A.R7) are developed under Task V.C, where terrain is the whole point. How weight, CG, G loading, and bank angle move stall speed — the K1 relationship and the accelerated stall in R5 — is covered under Task V.B. The examiner can ask any of the three against this Task; the answers are the same.
Name the operational scenarios in a partial flap configuration that set up an impending stall.
Windshear or a microburst on departure or a low approach — performance loss the crew tries to fly through with pitch
Turbulence and high density altitude eroding the margin between the current and the critical AOA (AA.V.A.R6)
A level-off or altitude capture with thrust still at climb and the flight director commanding pitch the thrust cannot support
A premature or unbriefed flap retraction below the maneuvering speed for the next configuration
Distraction and task saturation during a config change — the ACS names distractions, task prioritization, loss of situational awareness, and disorientation as risks (AA.V.A.R8). The emphasis is earned: stall/spin accidents account for roughly one-quarter of all fatal general aviation accidents, and NTSB statistics indicate most result when a pilot is momentarily distracted from the primary task of flying (AC 61-67)
Sideslip from an unfeathered or asymmetric-thrust condition, which AA.V.A.K1 calls out specifically for this Task
Why does the ACS single out sideslip effects in the partial flap and landing Tasks, but not in the clean Task?
Compare the knowledge elements: AA.V.A.K1 and AA.V.C.K1 both list sideslip effects among the relationships you must understand; AA.V.B.K1 (clean) does not. The reason is operational — the partial flap and landing configurations are the ones flown near the ground with asymmetric thrust, crosswind corrections, and rudder trim in play. Uncoordinated flight at high AOA is how an impending stall becomes a spin, and the ACS lists inadvertent stall, spin, and loss of control during takeoff or while on approach as the risk (AA.V.A.R1). The skill element answers it: coordinated flight throughout the maneuver (AA.V.A.S3).
Why is a go-around the classic stall/spin setup, in propeller terms?
AC 61-67 names the scenario directly: a go-around or short field takeoff — high pitch attitude, high power setting, and low airspeed — is the classic situation where P-factor (asymmetric propeller loading) can precipitate a stall/spin accident. At high AOA the downward-moving blade carries a higher AOA and more thrust, yawing the airplane left; insufficient or excessive rudder correction leaves the airplane uncoordinated. Two compounding traps apply (AC 61-67, para 109): in an uncoordinated maneuver the pitot/static instruments — especially the altimeter and airspeed indicator — are unreliable, so the stall warning may be your first honest cue that a critical AOA is approaching; and if a stall recovery is not promptly initiated, the airplane is more likely to enter an inadvertent spin, the primary cause of which is exceeding the critical AOA while applying excessive or insufficient rudder.
The jet-era version swaps P-factor for the underwing thrust couple, but the risk it grounds is the same one the ACS names: inadvertent stall, spin, and loss of control during takeoff or while on approach (AA.V.A.R1).
The Task says 'either manually or with the autopilot engaged.' What changes if the evaluator leaves the autopilot in?
The entry changes; the recovery does not. AC 120-109 directs that training include disconnecting the autopilot and autothrottle/autothrust during stall prevention training and, where the autoflight integration permits, scenarios with the autothrottle/autothrust engaged. With the autopilot flying the entry, the airplane arrives at the stall warning already trimmed well nose-up, which is precisely the out-of-trim condition step 1 of the template warns about — you must ensure the pitch attitude does not increase when disconnecting the autopilot. Expect to need forward column force and nose-down trim.
How do flight envelope protections change the picture, and what about degraded modes?
The honest answer for the oral is type-specific — it belongs to your AFM and FSB report, not a memorized generality. AA.V.A.K4 requires knowledge of flight envelope protection in normal and degraded modes and of unexpected disconnects of the autopilot or autothrottle/autothrust: protections vary by manufacturer and by control law, and a degraded law may hand you an airplane with no alpha protection at all. AC 120-109 directs operators to consult the FSB report for the specific type, reviewing the Training Areas of Special Emphasis and any stall-related recommendations (para 2-6). Say what your airplane does; never generalize.
Crew coordination and the callout sequence
Who does what when the stick shaker fires on a two-pilot flight deck?
Treat it as a memory-item maneuver with a division of labor:
The pilot flying announces the recovery ("stall — my controls" or the operator's phrasing), disconnects the autopilot and autothrottle/autothrust, and applies nose-down pitch until the warning stops
The pilot monitoring confirms the disconnects, calls the airspeed and altitude trend, sets thrust as directed, and retracts speed brakes/spoilers
Configuration changes are commanded and confirmed, not silent — the Task requires flaps and other lift/drag devices to the recommended setting, and the landing gear retracted after a positive rate of climb is established, if applicable (AA.V.A.S7)
Fly your operator's published callouts; the point is that both pilots must be able to state the sequence out loud.
Once you're flying again, what is the priority order?
Priority order (AC 120-109, para 4-2):
Recognize the stall and return the airplane to a controlled, safe state — the most important factor in surviving a stall event
Recover to a safe maneuvering speed and AOA
Re-establish the assigned heading, altitude, and airspeed
Return to the desired flight path as specified by the evaluator (AA.V.A.S7)
Chasing the clearance during the recovery is how a stall event becomes an accident.
Task B. Clean Configuration Stall Prevention
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with stalls in a clean configuration.
References: AC 61-67, AC 120-109; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-25; FSB Report (type specific); POH/AFM
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What does the clean configuration Task require that the other two stall prevention Tasks do not?
Two things. First, the entry is while in cruise flight — there is no configuration to establish, so the skill element only requires coordinated flight in simulated or actual instrument conditions throughout (AA.V.B.S3). Second, the recovery ends simply with return to the desired flight path as specified by the evaluator (AA.V.B.S7) — there is no flap or gear retraction step, because there is nothing extended. The added knowledge element is the one that matters: effects of altitude on performance (e.g., thrust available) and flight control effectiveness during a recovery (AA.V.B.K6).
What are the tolerances for the clean configuration stall prevention Task?
Entry altitude allowing the recovery to be completed no lower than 3,000 feet AGL (non-transport category) or 5,000 feet AGL (transport category), after clearing the area (AA.V.B.S1)
Bank angle 15°–30°, with pitch and power adjusted smoothly per the evaluator's instructions to an impending stall (AA.V.B.S4)
Coordinated flight in simulated or actual instrument conditions throughout (AA.V.B.S3)
Recovery promptly at the first indication of an impending stall, with the cue(s) acknowledged (AA.V.B.S5)
Same numbers as the partial flap and landing Tasks. There is still no altitude-loss, airspeed, or heading tolerance.
The book stall speed is one number. What actually moves it?
Weight, G loading, CG, bank angle, altitude, and icing all move it — AC 120-109 names exactly this list of factors affecting handling characteristics and stall speed (para 4-2b). AA.V.B.K1 tests the same relationship: AOA, airspeed, load factor, power setting, aircraft weight and balance, and attitude. Start from the AFH's warning that a published level-flight 1G stall speed is valid only:
In unaccelerated 1G flight
In coordinated flight (slip-skid indicator centered)
At one weight (typically maximum gross)
At one CG (typically maximum forward)
Break any of those four and the number on the page is optimistic. For a clean, uncontaminated wing the critical AOA does not move — only the speed at which you reach it does. (Icing is the exception: contamination changes the critical AOA itself — see the cruise-scenarios card.)
How much does bank angle change the stall speed, and why does that matter in a 15°–30° turn?
Stalling speed increases at the square root of the load factor (AFH ch. 10; AC 61-67 states the same rule). The Task is flown at 15°–30° (AA.V.B.S4), so the penalty is modest — but it stacks on top of weight and altitude. The AFH and AC 61-67 give matching examples:
Level flight: stalls at 50 knots
45° bank: stalls at 60 knots
60° bank: stalls at 70 knots
4 G load factor: a 45-knot airplane stalls at 90 knots — an accelerated maneuver stall, so named because it arrives at a higher indicated airspeed than any stall you practiced
Two consequences for the check:
As bank steepens, the margin between stalling speed and maneuvering speed decreases (AFH ch. 10). An accelerated stall — one of the risk items in AA.V.B.R5 — is simply reaching the critical AOA at a higher-than-normal airspeed, so the cues arrive sooner than your airspeed instinct expects.
Weight and CG shift it too: forward CG gives a slightly higher stalling speed but favorable stall characteristics; aft CG gives a slightly lower stalling speed and less desirable stall characteristics (AFH ch. 13).
The simulator can also mask this: AC 120-109 lists G loading awareness / accelerated stall among the FFS limitations instructors must brief, since those cues can be absent from the device (para 2-4).
How much altitude should you expect to lose recovering from an impending stall at cruise altitude?
AC 120-109: at high altitudes, stall recovery will likely require losing several thousand feet. The AFH agrees — at high altitude, where available thrust is significantly less than at lower altitudes, recovery may require significant pitch down to regain airspeed, and several thousand feet or more of altitude loss may occur (AFH ch. 16). This is why there is no altitude-loss criterion in the ACS, and why an applicant who tries to fly a high-altitude recovery like a low-altitude one usually earns a secondary stall warning. Note that the warning itself is not the bust: AC 120-109 says a secondary stall warning is acceptable as long as AOA is promptly reduced and the airplane's limitations are not exceeded (para 4-2a). What fails you is chasing the altimeter instead of the AOA.
Do you wait for an ATC clearance before descending out of a stall event?
No. AC 120-109 is explicit: declare an emergency if necessary — do not delay recovery due to degrading airspeed or a stall event to obtain ATC clearance to a lower altitude (para 4-2). The altitude is yours to trade, and the coordination happens afterward. The pilot monitoring handles the declaration and the deviation call while the pilot flying flies the recovery.
Why is the stall recovery technique the same at altitude as it is down low?
Because the aerodynamics are the same: reducing AOA eliminates the stall regardless of altitude. The AFH says the high-altitude technique is the same — lower the nose until the stall warning stops — but adds that after the AOA is reduced to where the wing is again developing efficient lift, the airplane will still likely need to accelerate to a desired airspeed (AFH ch. 16). What changes is not the procedure but the energy budget: down low there is thrust to stop the descent quickly; up high there is not, so the altitude does the work the thrust cannot.
What is different about thrust available at high altitude during a recovery?
Two effects, and AC 120-109 names both under altitude effects: thrust available for recovery is reduced, and there is a lack of airflow through the engines at high AOA. The AC draws the conclusion for you — this reinforces that reduction of AOA must precede any increase of thrust (para 4-2). Adding thrust into a high-AOA, high-altitude condition may buy you very little and can cost you a compressor stall or an unhelpful pitch couple.
How does flight control behavior change at high altitude?
AC 120-109 lists pitch rate sensitivity of flight controls due to lack of aerodynamic damping among the differences between high and low altitude stalls (para 4-2). Thin air means less damping in pitch and roll, so a given control input produces a larger and faster response than the same input produces at low altitude. Practically: your nose-down input needs to be positive but smooth, and the recapture of the flight path needs to be gentle — the AC's rationale for step 6 is to apply gentle action for recovery to avoid secondary stalls.
What situations lead to an impending stall in cruise flight?
AA.V.B.K3 and R1 ask for exactly this. Realistic ones:
Loss of reliable airspeed — blocked or iced pitot inputs feeding both the pilots and the autoflight
An autopilot holding altitude while drag rises or thrust falls, trimming nose-up as speed decays
Turbulence, mountain wave, or a temperature shear at an altitude with a thin maneuver margin (AA.V.B.R6)
An inadvertent climb above the airplane's capability for the weight and temperature
Icing changing the wing's critical AOA, so the stall arrives at a speed and attitude that look normal
Distraction and task saturation, plus loss of situational awareness or disorientation (AA.V.B.R8)
Why does the buffet margin narrow at high altitude, and what is 'coffin corner'?
Because the low-speed and high-speed buffet boundaries converge as altitude increases; the point where they merge is the aerodynamic ceiling, known as coffin corner. At cruise altitude you are boxed in from both sides: slowing brings you to the low-speed buffet boundary, where prestall buffet begins, and accelerating brings Mach buffet — airflow separation behind a shock wave (AC 61-107). Increasing weight or G loading raises the low-speed buffet speed and lowers the Mach buffet speed — AC 61-107's example turbojet at 51,000 feet meets buffet at only 1.4 G, so a bank, a gust, or a speed change can erase the margin. This is why AC 120-109 lists Mach effects among the factors leading to a stall event and expects knowledge of your buffet boundary and margins — including the different buffet cues on the high-speed versus low-speed side (paras 3-2b, 3-2d). Select a cruise altitude that leaves sufficient buffet margin for the maneuvering and gusts expected (AC 61-107).
How does turbulence change your stall margin in cruise, and what speed do you fly in it?
Turbulence can cause an aircraft to stall at a significantly higher airspeed than in stable conditions — a vertical gust or windshear produces a sudden change in the relative wind and an abrupt increase in AOA (AC 61-67). Even a gust too brief to develop a stall by itself can stall the airplane while you are correcting the flightpath. The speed guidance (AC 61-67, para 100):
In moderate or severe turbulence in cruise, fly an airspeed well above the indicated stall speed and below maneuvering speed (VA)
Remember VA is lower at a lower weight
Respect what VA does not protect: do not use full or abrupt control movements at or above VA — and rapid, large alternating control inputs, especially combined with large changes in pitch, roll, or yaw, can produce structural failure at any speed, even below VA
This is the mechanism behind the turbulence item in AA.V.B.R6: the margin problem is an AOA problem before it is an airspeed problem.
What are the three checking criteria for an impending stall?
Per AC 120-109, para 4-5:
Prompt recognition of the impending stall
Correct application of the stall recovery procedure
Recovering without exceeding the airplane's limitations
The AC adds that the check pilot establishes the flight conditions and that you may fly the entry profile but are not being checked on the entry — except for recognition of the deteriorating flight situation (para 4-4). You are graded from the cue forward, plus whether you saw it coming.
What is the stall recovery procedure you are required to fly on the check?
The one set forth in the POH/Flight Manual for the airplane (AA.V.B.S6). AC 120-109 defines the stall recovery procedure as the correct, airplane-specific actions developed by the operator in consultation with the airplane manufacturer; only if consultation is impracticable does the stall recovery template in Appendix 1 apply. Know your operator's procedure verbatim, and know that it maps onto the template:
Disconnect the autoflight
Reduce AOA
Roll wings level
Manage thrust
Retract speed brakes
Return to the flightpath
Deep Dive
The swept wing at altitude
Everything that makes a swept wing efficient in cruise also shapes how it stalls. This is the Task where the examiner can reasonably ask about airplane design, because AA.V.B.K2 asks for stall characteristics as they relate to airplane design — but K2 is worded identically in Tasks V.A and V.C, so treat this section as the answer for all three.
Two neighboring elements live in the sibling Tasks: the rule that you recover at stall warning and not at a low speed or low energy alert is covered under Task V.A, and collision hazards including aircraft and terrain (AA.V.B.R7) under Task V.C.
How does a swept, tapered wing stall differently from a training airplane's wing?
The boundary layer on a swept wing tends to flow spanwise toward the tips, and the tendency for tip stall — allowing the center of lift to move forward — is greatest when wing sweep and taper are combined (AFH ch. 16). A forward shift in the center of lift is a nose-up pitching moment at exactly the wrong moment. Manufacturers fight it by modifying the wing spanwise with twist, changes in airfoil section, vortex generators, or a combination, which helps you retain roll control initially if a stall is entered inadvertently. Note the consequence for cues: airplanes without vortex generators may stall with little to no buffet (AFH ch. 16).
What is a deep stall, and why does the recovery feel wrong?
Some T-tail configurations are prone to deep stalls, where the tail becomes immersed in the wing wake at very high angles of attack and loses effectiveness, often with a high rate of descent (AFH ch. 16). It feels wrong because high angles of attack can occur at any pitch attitude — even with the nose below the horizon — so the correct action is to push the nose down even further. The AFH warning: deep stalls may be unrecoverable, but they are easily avoided as long as published limitations are observed. On susceptible types, stick shakers are standard equipment and a stick pusher may be fitted.
What does a stick pusher actually do, and what should you conclude if one fires?
A stick pusher applies an abrupt and large forward force on the control column (AFH glossary) to automatically reduce the airplane's AOA before the airplane reaches a dangerous stall condition, or to aid recovery where the airplane's natural aerodynamic characteristics do so weakly (AFH ch. 16). Two conclusions. First, pusher activation is an indication of a full stall (AC 120-109 definition; AFH ch. 5) — if it fires on the check, the impending stall was not prevented. Second, avoid situations that would activate a stick pusher when close to the ground (AFH ch. 16). Under 121.423(c), full stall and stick pusher activation recovery is instructor-guided training in a Level C or higher FFS, not a check maneuver.
Why do jet pilots recover at the first indication rather than going to the full stall?
The AFH states the training standard directly: pilots undergoing training in jet airplanes are taught to recover at the first indication of an impending stall instead of going beyond those initial cues and into a full stall — normally indicated by aural stall warning devices, annunciators, or activation of the stick shaker. The proper action is a nose-down input until the stall warning stops (pitch trim may be necessary), then roll wings level, then adjust thrust to return to normal flight (AFH ch. 16). The AFH also frames the division of labor cleanly: reducing AOA eliminates the stall, but added thrust allows the descent to be stopped once the wing is flying again.
Autoflight, envelope protection, and the surprise problem
How can the autoflight system be the cause of the impending stall rather than a defense against it?
By doing exactly what it was told. An autopilot holding an altitude or a vertical path will trim nose-up as speed decays, quietly consuming your maneuver margin, and AC 120-109 notes that reducing AOA in the recovery also addresses autopilot-induced excessive nose-up trim (Appendix 1 rationale, step 2a). When it can hold no longer, the abrupt pitch-up or trim change at an unexpected autopilot disconnect hands you a physical problem on top of an aerodynamic one, and in some airplanes an additional pitch-up when thrust is increased (para 4-2). AA.V.B.K4 asks about envelope protection in normal and degraded modes — answer for your type from the AFM and FSB report, never generically.
What role does startle play, and how is it handled in training versus checking?
AC 120-109 defines startle as an uncontrollable, automatic muscle reflex, raised heart rate, blood pressure, etc., elicited by exposure to a sudden, intense event that violates a pilot's expectations — and identifies surprise as a factor in stall incidents and accidents. The AC therefore encourages using surprise in training, to reinforce timely application of the recovery under confusing circumstances, while stating that surprise should not be used during checking (definition at para 1-7p; the training guidance is para 4-3, "Using Surprise in Training"). It also notes the practical confusion source: noises associated with stick shakers, autopilot, and autothrottle/autothrust disconnect alarms can cause confusion in the cockpit (para 4-2). This is why the procedure is memorized in an order — startle is survived by sequence, not by improvisation.
Where does maneuver-based training end and scenario-based training begin?
AC 120-109 defines maneuver-based training as training that focuses on a single event or maneuver in isolation, and scenario-based training (SBT) as training that incorporates maneuvers into real-world experiences to build practical skills in an operational environment. SBT normally comes after you demonstrate proficiency in maneuver-based training, during upgrade and recurrent training, and its scenarios should draw on accident, incident, ASAP, FOQA, and ASRS data. Pilots are not normally briefed that they are receiving SBT — and if you recognize and prevent the stall before the scenario fully unfolds, that is the desired objective (para 4-2). Area V is the maneuver-based half; the line-oriented half is where the prevention skill is actually proven.
Task C. Landing Configuration Stall Prevention
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with stalls in the landing configuration
References: AC 61-67, AC 120-109; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-25; FSB Report (type specific); POH/AFM
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What counts as the landing configuration for stall prevention?
Landing configuration means the landing gear extended and the flaps set at an approved setting for a normal landing (AC 120-109). The skill element requires you to establish that configuration — lift/drag devices set and landing gear extended — and maintain coordinated flight throughout the maneuver, in simulated or actual instrument conditions (AA.V.C.S3). If your operator authorizes more than one landing flap setting, know which one the evaluator specified and say it back.
What are the tolerances for the landing configuration stall prevention Task?
Clear the area; entry altitude must allow the recovery to be completed no lower than 3,000 feet AGL (non-transport category) or 5,000 feet AGL (transport category) (AA.V.C.S1)
Bank 15°–30°, with pitch attitude and power adjusted smoothly per the evaluator's instructions to an impending stall, manually or with the autopilot engaged (AA.V.C.S4)
Coordinated flight in simulated or actual instrument conditions throughout (AA.V.C.S3)
Acknowledge the cue(s) and promptly recover at the first indication of an impending stall (AA.V.C.S5)
Note the entry altitude is identical across all three stall prevention Tasks — the landing configuration is not flown at a lower entry altitude just because it models a low-altitude event.
The landing configuration Task adds a risk element the other two stall prevention Tasks don't have. What is it?
Stalls at a low altitude (AA.V.C.R7). The other two Tasks stop at inadvertent stall, spin, and loss of control; this one names the altitude problem directly, because the landing configuration is the one you are actually in when close to the ground. The practical content of that risk: there may be no altitude available to trade, which is precisely why the standard is prevention at the first indication rather than recovery from a developed stall. AC 120-109 directs training at low altitudes within 500 feet AGL as well as near maximum altitude (para 4-2).
If you can't afford altitude loss down low, doesn't that argue for holding altitude in the recovery?
No — this is the single most important reversal in modern stall training. AC 120-109: reducing AOA is the most important pilot action in recovering from an impending or full stall, and pilots must accept that doing so will normally result in altitude loss. Recovery profiles that emphasized zero or minimal altitude loss and immediate maximum thrust have been eliminated (para 2-5). The AFH makes the same point from the accident record: pilots who did not first reduce AOA and instead prioritized power and maintaining altitude lost control (AFH ch. 5). Low altitude raises the stakes of getting the wing flying again; it does not change the method.
Give the recovery in order for the landing configuration.
Fly your POH/FM procedure (AA.V.C.S6), which should map onto the AC 120-109 template:
Autopilot and autothrottle/autothrust — disconnect
Nose-down pitch control until impending stall indications are eliminated; nose-down trim as needed
Bank — wings level
Thrust — as needed
Speed brakes/spoilers — retract
Return to the desired flightpath, gently
Configuration cleanup: retract flaps or other lift/drag devices to the recommended setting, and retract the landing gear after a positive rate of climb is established, before returning to the flight path the evaluator specifies (AA.V.C.S7).
Why does the gear come up only after a positive rate of climb?
Because the ACS requires it — retract the landing gear only after a positive rate of climb is established, if applicable (AA.V.C.S7) — and because sequence matters when you are trading altitude for AOA. Neither the ACS nor AC 120-109 explains the why; take the rest of this as instructor reasoning rather than standard: until the wing is flying and the vertical trend has reversed, the gear is your evidence of state, and an early retraction removes the option of touching down on wheels if the recovery is at low altitude. Flaps go to the recommended setting, not to zero: retracting flaps fully at low speed raises the stall speed at exactly the wrong moment. Command and confirm each change with the pilot monitoring.
How does icing change landing configuration stall prevention?
Icing is the one environmental element unique to the landing configuration among the three stall prevention Tasks (AA.V.C.R6). Its effects:
Earlier stall: contamination changes the wing's critical AOA so the stall arrives earlier than the airspeed suggests; the AFH warns that wing contamination limits the effectiveness of an AOA indicator (AFH ch. 5)
Weaker cues: with ice, aerodynamic stall may occur with little or none of the usual advance cues — buffet, reduced control effectiveness, stall warning horn, shaker, or pusher — and stall speed increases as high as 50 knots have been observed in post-upset data review (AC 61-67, para 102)
Recovery: a prompt pitch-down with aggressive power application gives the most rapid recovery with minimum altitude loss; note the AOA (or airspeed) at the upset and do not approach it again during the recovery, since it may be well below the normal stall AOA
Equipment: AC 120-109 also lists the effects of malfunctioning or deferred equipment on stall protection and stick pusher systems (para 4-2) — a deferred heated probe or an inoperative ice protection component changes what your warnings are worth
Refer to the AFM for contaminated-wing approach speed additives; this guide will not assert them.
What operational scenarios put a transport airplane near a stall in the landing configuration?
AA.V.C.K3 asks for the factors and the prevention. Realistic ones:
An unstabilized approach — high, fast, and configuring late, then decelerating below target with idle thrust and spool-up time working against you
A slam-dunk or short-notice runway change compressing the descent and the configuration schedule
Windshear or a microburst on short final (AA.V.C.R6)
An overshooting base-to-final turn corrected with rudder — the classic cross-control, which the ACS lists under R5
A late go-around with the airplane already slow, trimmed nose-up, and about to receive a large pitch couple with thrust
Distraction and task prioritization failures during a busy, low-altitude segment (AA.V.C.R9)
Prevention is a go-around, taken early. The prevention decision is the checkride answer.
How do you handle collision hazards — aircraft and terrain — during a stall event?
AA.V.C.R8 (and AA.V.A.R7 / AA.V.B.R7 in the sibling Tasks) names collision hazards, including aircraft and terrain. It shows up in three places:
Before the entry — the skill element opens with clear the area and an entry altitude that lets the recovery finish no lower than 3,000 ft AGL (non-transport) or 5,000 ft AGL (transport) (AA.V.C.S1). The altitude floor is the terrain mitigation for the maneuver.
During the recovery — AC 120-109 is unambiguous about the conflict you are most likely to meet down low: if a TAWS warning is encountered during recovery from a low-altitude stall event, recovery from the stall warning takes precedence; you fly the TAWS escape maneuver only once the airplane has recovered from the stall event (para 3-2a). You cannot pull to a terrain escape with the wing still stalled.
After the recovery — situational awareness while returning to the desired flightpath — heading, terrain, altitude, other aircraft, and flight deck automation — is among the emphasis areas in the AC's sample lesson plans (Appendices 3–4). This is where the pilot monitoring's traffic and terrain scan, and the deviation call to ATC, belong.
What is an elevator trim stall and why is it in the stall prevention risk list?
The ACS lists secondary stalls, accelerated stalls, elevator trim stalls, and cross-control stalls among the risks for all three stall prevention Tasks (AA.V.C.R5), but the elevator trim case belongs to the landing configuration by scenario: the airplane is trimmed for a low approach speed, then thrust is applied for a go-around, and the nose-up trim plus the thrust couple produce a pitch-up the pilot must physically overpower. AC 120-109 anticipates the same physics from the other direction — an abrupt pitch-up or trim change at an unexpected autopilot disconnect, aggravated in some airplanes by an additional pitch-up when the pilot increases thrust (para 4-2). The answer in both cases is forward column plus nose-down trim as needed — template step 2.
What would make your performance on landing configuration stall prevention unsatisfactory?
Measure yourself against the AC 120-109 checking criteria (para 4-5): prompt recognition of the impending stall, correct application of the stall recovery procedure, and recovering without exceeding the airplane's limitations. Concretely, that means failing to acknowledge the cue and recover at the first indication (AA.V.C.S5); letting it progress to a full stall or a stick pusher activation; losing coordinated flight (AA.V.C.S3); exceeding an airplane limitation to get out of it; or mishandling the cleanup sequence.
Two things commonly assumed to be bust items are not:
Altitude loss: not a failure item by itself — criteria "should not focus on altitude loss" (para 4-5), and there is no predetermined value
Secondary stall warning: not automatically a failure item either — AC 120-109 notes it can be difficult in some airplanes to judge where pitch can begin to be increased, and a secondary warning is acceptable as long as AOA is promptly reduced and the airplane's limitations are not exceeded (para 4-2a). What fails you is not reducing AOA promptly, or exceeding a limitation — not the second chirp.
Deep Dive
Prevention is a go-around decision
The ACS frames K3 as factors that can lead to a stall when configured for landing and actions that can be taken to prevent it. At ATP standards the prevention is almost always a stabilized-approach gate and a go-around — a decision made a minute before the stick shaker, not a control input made after it.
Three elements this Task shares word-for-word with its siblings are developed elsewhere rather than repeated: the airplane-design half of AA.V.C.K2 (swept and tapered wings, T-tail deep stalls, vortex generators, stick pushers) and how weight, CG, G loading, and bank angle move stall speed are both covered under Task V.B; the rule that you recover at stall warning, not at a low speed or low energy alert, is covered under Task V.A.
How should you talk about stabilized approach criteria in the stall prevention oral?
Anchor it to your operator's manual, not to a number you memorized elsewhere — stabilized approach gates are operator- and type-specific, published in the FOM or GOM, and the ACS points you to the FSB Report (type specific) and POH/AFM. State these without needing a reference:
The gate is a decision point
The required outcome when the criteria are not met is a go-around
An early go-around is the answer the evaluator is looking for — the ACS frames K3 as the actions that can be taken to prevent the stall, and a go-around taken before the margin is gone is that action
Treat the relative grading weight of a go-around as instructor judgment, not published criteria; the only published checking criteria are the three in AC 120-109 para 4-5. Frame the prevention as an energy-management call: configuration, thrust, and flight path committed early enough that the airplane is never asked to fly slower than it can.
What does 'maintain coordinated flight throughout' really cost you in the landing configuration?
It costs you the classic overshooting-turn skid at high AOA — corrected with bottom rudder on the turn to final, more than you'd risk in cruise. The ACS risk for this Task is inadvertent stall, spin, and loss of control during landing (AA.V.C.R1), and sideslip effects appear in the knowledge element (AA.V.C.K1). The AFH warns that even the instinct to pick up a dropping wing with aileron can make it worse — a downward-deflected aileron produces greater AOA and more induced drag on that wing and a more complete stall at the tip, why it's important to first reduce AOA before attempting to roll (AFH ch. 5). Template order — pitch, then bank — exists for this reason.
If the skidding turn does become a spin, what do you need to know about it?
Enough to explain why prevention is the only real answer down low.
Definition: a spin is an aggravated stall that results in autorotation — the rising wing is less stalled than the descending wing, and the airplane follows a downward corkscrew path (AC 61-67)
Cause: exceeding the critical AOA while applying excessive or insufficient rudder (para 109)
Direction: follows the feet — in a skidding turn (aileron and rudder in the same direction), rotation goes in the direction the controls are applied; in a slipping turn, the spin usually breaks opposite the aileron being held
Recovery: the PARE order you learned in primary training — power to idle, ailerons neutral, full opposite rudder, then briskly move the elevator forward to about neutral; neutralize the rudder when rotation stops and gradually recover from the dive. Abrupt aft elevator or rudder/aileron inputs during the recovery can produce a secondary stall and another spin (AC 61-67, para 111)
Altitude: roughly 500 feet of altitude loss per 3-second turn in most small aircraft in which spins are authorized, more at high density altitude
A base-to-final spin has no recovery altitude — which is why the graded skill is coordination throughout (AA.V.C.S3), not spin recovery.
What are the cues you should expect in a landing-configuration impending stall, and how are they weaker than you'd like?
Synthetic cues come first and are what you act on: stick shaker, aural warning, annunciator. A shaker normally activates around 107 percent of the actual stall speed (AFH ch. 16) — roughly a 7 percent margin, a handful of knots at approach speeds.
Aerodynamic buffet may be a poor cue — airplanes without vortex generators may stall with little to no buffet (AFH ch. 16); buffet severe enough to be a strong and effective deterrent to further AOA increase is a full stall indication, not an impending one (AC 120-109 definition).
Feel: control pressures lighten and larger control movements are needed for the same response, with increased reaction time (AFH ch. 5).
Descent rate: in a power-off, 1G stall the predominant cues may be full-up elevator against the stops and a high descent rate (AFH ch. 5) — a cue that is nearly invisible from inside a stabilized-looking approach attitude.
Crew procedure and the low-altitude case
How do the callouts differ when the impending stall happens at 500 feet on approach instead of at altitude?
The procedure does not change; the margins do. AC 120-109 directs that training include stall events at low altitudes within 500 feet AGL (para 4-2), because the crew has to execute the identical sequence with a fraction of the altitude. Practically:
The pilot monitoring's most valuable call is the prevention call — deviation from the approach criteria, sink rate, or speed trend — before any warning fires
Once the cue fires, the pilot flying announces and flies the recovery; the pilot monitoring confirms the autoflight disconnects, calls radio altitude and vertical trend, and handles the go-around, ATC, and any emergency declaration
Configuration changes stay commanded and confirmed — flaps to the recommended setting, gear up after a positive rate (AA.V.C.S7)
AC 120-109 defines CRM as the effective use of all available resources: human resources, hardware, and information (para 1-7b) — at 500 feet, the pilot monitoring's voice is the resource that matters.
Why can't you use an ATC clearance as a reason to delay the recovery?
You can't — AC 120-109 says so directly: do not delay recovery due to degrading airspeed or a stall event to obtain ATC clearance to a lower altitude; declare an emergency if necessary (para 4-2). On a low approach the practical version is that you may deviate from the assigned altitude, the missed approach path, or the speed assignment to fly the recovery, and you coordinate afterward. Priority order: only after recovering to a safe maneuvering speed and AOA do you re-establish the assigned heading, altitude, and airspeed.
Where does stall prevention fit in an air carrier's training and checking cycle?
Under 121.423, stall prevention lives inside extended envelope training:
Simulator: conducted in a Level C or higher full flight simulator approved under 121.407, with instructor-guided hands-on experience of recovery from full stall and stick pusher activation, if equipped (121.423(a), (c))
Maneuvers: the neighborhood this Task lives in also includes manually controlled slow flight, manually controlled loss of reliable airspeed, manually controlled instrument departure and arrival, upset recovery maneuvers, and recovery from bounced landing (121.423(b))
Recurrency:24 calendar months for items (b)(1) through (4) and (c); 36 calendar months for the bounced landing item (121.423(d))
Deviations: from the Level C simulator requirement may be approved for periods not to exceed 12 months (121.423(e)(4))
Area VI. Instrument Procedures
Task A. Instrument Takeoff
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with an instrument takeoff.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What makes the ATP instrument takeoff different from any IFR takeoff you've already flown?
Two things: how early the visual world disappears, and how tight the numbers are. The evaluator simulates IMC at or before 100 feet AGL — and in a full flight simulator the visibility is set to no greater than ¼ mile, or as specified by the applicable operations specifications, whichever is lower (AA.VI.A.S7; ACS Appendix 3). From there you must hold heading ±5° and airspeed ±5 knots (AA.VI.A.S12) while retracting gear and flaps, following the flight director, and complying with the clearance. The task is graded as a crew evolution: checklists coordinated and completed in a timely manner before takeoff (S1) and after (S14), with callouts per the operator's procedures (S9).
What are the standard IFR takeoff minimums for an air carrier (91.175(f))?
Takeoff minimums apply to operations under parts 121, 125, 129, and 135 — not part 91. Use the minimums prescribed for the airport under part 97; if none are prescribed:
Two engines or less — 1 statute mile visibility
More than two engines — ½ statute mile visibility (91.175(f)(2))
And notwithstanding any ATC clearance, no takeoff when reported weather is below the certificate holder's OpSpecs minimums (121.651(a)). Through OpSpecs, operators with the required equipment, training, and runway visual aids — HIRL, centerline lights, centerline markings — can be authorized lower-than-standard minimums as low as 1600 RVR or ¼ SM with those basic visual aids (IPH ch. 1) — and lower still with additional RVR reporting, lighting, and equipment authorizations in the OpSpecs.
Departure weather is below your landing minimums. Can you still go, and what does dispatch have to do about it?
Yes — takeoff minimums are typically lower than landing minimums (IPH ch. 1) — but the release must name a takeoff alternate (121.617). If departure weather is below the landing minimums in the OpSpecs for that airport, the dispatch or flight release must specify an alternate within:
1 hour at normal cruising speed, still air, one engine inoperative — airplanes with two engines
2 hours, same conditions — airplanes with three or more engines (121.617(a))
That distance rule exists for exactly the risk this task names: engine failure in the takeoff/climb phase with ceiling or visibility below approach minimums at the departure airport (AA.VI.A.R3b). Brief where you're going before you need it.
What belongs in the takeoff briefing for this task (ACS Appendix 3)?
The ACS expects the briefing to cover, as appropriate (ACS Appendix 3):
Departure runway
Departure procedure
Power settings
Speeds
Abnormal or emergency procedures before or after decision speed (V1 or VMC)
Emergency return intentions
What the applicant expects other crewmembers to do during the takeoff and departure
If the operator or manufacturer hasn't specified one, brief it once well; the evaluator may then let you brief only the changes for the rest of the test. Single pilot? You still verbalize it.
What must be verified before the power comes up (AA.VI.A.S2, S4, S6)?
Avionics and flight instruments properly set — FMS, flight director, heading bug, altitude preselect, nav sources (S2)
Assigned/correct runway verified (S4) — then clear the area, taxi into position, and align on the centerline (S6)
Flight controls positioned for the existing wind (S5)
Radio calls as appropriate (S3)
The instrument takeoff punishes a rushed lineup: the IFH lists improper runway alignment — creeping after alignment, nosewheel cocked — as a classic error, a built-in directional control problem before the roll even starts (IFH ch. 7).
What happens between brake release and rotation on an instrument takeoff?
Maintain centerline with proper flight control inputs during the roll (AA.VI.A.S8), and confirm takeoff power and proper engine and flight instrument indications prior to rotation, making callouts for the airplane or per the operator's procedures (S9). Then rotate at the recommended airspeed, establish the desired pitch attitude, and accelerate to the desired airspeed/V-speed (S10). Which speeds and which callouts are type- and operator-specific — fly your AFM numbers and your company's flow. What's universal is the discipline: power set and verified, instruments alive and agreeing, before VR.
How do you handle the transition from visual to instrument flight right after liftoff (AA.VI.A.S11)?
Smoothly and on schedule — the cues may be gone by 100 feet AGL. A sudden, rapid transition from visual to instrument flight can cause serious disorientation and control problems, the whole reason instrument-takeoff competency exists (IFH ch. 7). The handbook's practical discipline:
Hold the established pitch attitude on the attitude indicator through gear and flap retraction — control pressures change and overcontrolling is likely unless you read the pitch indications accurately
Trim off the pressures
Keep the cross-check rapid through every configuration and power change (IFH ch. 7)
Failure to maintain attitude after liftoff — chasing seat-of-the-pants sensations — is on the IFH's common-error list. The ACS names the underlying risks: distractions, task prioritization, loss of situational awareness, or disorientation (AA.VI.A.R6).
What operational factors does the examiner want you to weigh before an instrument takeoff (AA.VI.A.K1)?
The knowledge element is a planning checklist for the low-visibility case:
Runway length, lighting, and surface conditions — enough runway and enough visual aids to keep centerline at ¼ mile vis
Wind and wake turbulence (also AA.VI.A.R2)
Icing conditions
Obstructions in the departure path
Available instrument approaches or alternate airports in the event of an emergency after takeoff — can you get back in, and if not, where exactly are you going?
Each of these feeds the runway-selection risk element (R1) and the abnormal-ops planning element (R3): rejected takeoff, and engine failure with weather below approach minimums.
What collision and low-altitude maneuvering risks ride along with a low-visibility takeoff (AA.VI.A.R4, R5)?
Collision hazards (R4) — at ¼-mile visibility they live mostly on the surface: aircraft and vehicles you won't see until they matter. The mitigations are procedural: verify the assigned/correct runway (S4), clear the area before lineup (S6), comply exactly with ATC clearances and hold-short instructions (S13), and use published low-visibility taxi routes where they exist. Airborne, separation is ATC's — precise clearance compliance is what keeps it that way.
Low altitude maneuvering — stall, spin, or CFIT (R5) — over-rotating or chasing the flight director at low energy erodes stall margin you can't see out the window; turning early or drifting off the departure procedure gives away the obstacle protection the departure design assumed (Task VI.B). The defense is the task's own standard: pitch attitude set and held, heading ±5°, airspeed ±5 knots (S12), nothing nonessential until clean and climbing on the procedure.
How does rejected-takeoff planning change when the visibility is a quarter mile?
The decision itself is briefed the same way — abnormals before or after decision speed (ACS Appendix 3) — but the margins shrink. A reject in ¼-mile visibility means stopping on a runway you can barely see, so the brief must be concrete: who calls it, who does what, and what the stop margins are for today's weight and surface condition. The ACS treats rejected takeoff as a planning risk for this task (AA.VI.A.R3a); the maneuver itself is tested under Area III, Task I. The low-visibility twist that belongs here: after any reject, hold your instrument discipline — taxiing clear in low visibility is its own threat.
Deep Dive
The technique under the tolerances
The ±5° and ±5-knot standard isn't met with talent on the day — it's met with a stable pitch attitude, early trim, and a cross-check that doesn't pause for configuration changes.
Walk through the instrument takeoff technique the IFH teaches.
Adapted for any airplane (IFH ch. 7):
Align with the centerline, nosewheel straight; hold the brakes to avoid creeping
Set the heading reference on the runway heading so any swerve shows instantly
Power smoothly to takeoff setting — abrupt application complicates directional control
Rudder for heading during the roll; avoid brakes except as a last resort
Approaching flying speed, smoothly set the takeoff attitude on the attitude indicator
At a safe altitude, gear and flaps up, holding attitude on the AI through the trim changes
Confirm the climb: altimeter and airspeed increasing, vertical speed stable — then trim and set climb power
In a transport-category airplane the same skeleton holds; your operator's callouts and the flight director overlay it, they don't replace it.
Which instrument-takeoff errors does the IFH say are most common — and which would bust this task?
From IFH ch. 7:
Inadequate flight deck check — pilots have attempted instrument takeoffs with obstructed pitot tubes, caged gyros, and locked controls. This one is fatal to AA.VI.A.S2.
Improper runway alignment — a built-in directional problem (S6)
Abrupt power application (S8)
Overcontrolling the rudder — late recognition, correcting the wrong way
Failure to maintain attitude after liftoff — pitch by guesswork (S10, S11)
Inadequate cross-check — fixating during trim, gear, flap, and power changes
The last one is the quiet killer of the ±5° / ±5-knot standard (S12): every fixation shows up as a drift.
How do the crew roles divide during an instrument takeoff?
The ACS grades coordination explicitly — coordinate with crew and complete the appropriate checklists in a timely manner before takeoff (AA.VI.A.S1) and after (S14), with callouts per the operator's procedures before rotation (S9). Fly your company's split; the pattern to be able to describe:
Pilot flying: centerline, rotation, attitude, flight path
Pilot monitoring: verifies takeoff power set, monitors engine and flight instruments, makes the deviation and standard speed callouts, handles radio calls (S3), and backs up the after-takeoff flow
The task also requires complying with ATC clearances and instructions issued by ATC or the evaluator (S13) — in a crew, that's the PM's radio and the PF's execution, cross-verified.
Task B. Departure Procedures
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with instrument departure procedures (DPs).
References: 14 CFR part 91; AC 90-100; AIM; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-15, FAA-H-8083-16, FAA-H-8083-25; POH/AFM; Terminal Procedures Publications
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What are the ACS tolerances for the departure procedures task?
The tolerances are:
Airspeed: ±10 knots
Heading: ±10°
Altitude: ±100 feet
These apply while accurately tracking a course, radial, or bearing (AA.VI.B.S8). Intercepts must be timely (S6), all charted procedures complied with (S7), and the departure flown until the evaluator judges the transition to the en route environment complete (S9). Note the contrast with this Area's approach tasks: the ±5-knot, ¼-scale world starts on final — the departure standard is the familiar instrument-rating envelope, flown with a jet's momentum.
You're assigned a SID with a published climb gradient. What must be true before you accept it?
You must be able to say yes to all of it (IPH ch. 1):
The ability to comply with the required performance — if you cannot meet the climb gradient in the SID, do not accept the clearance, and do not accept the procedure if ATC assigns it
The ability to navigate to the required accuracy
Possession of the charted procedure
Personal understanding of the SID in its entirety
The ACS makes gradient compliance a named risk (AA.VI.B.R1). And remember what TERPS assumes: departure design considers obstacle protection only — it assumes all engines operating and does not consider your airplane's performance. Engine-out procedures are the operator's responsibility (IPH ch. 1).
What does a 'climb via' clearance require?
"Climb via" is an abbreviated clearance requiring compliance with the procedure's lateral path and the associated speed and altitude restrictions along the cleared route (IPH ch. 1). It's the departure twin of "descend via" on a STAR. In an FMS airplane this is an automation-management item (AA.VI.B.R3): the charted restrictions must be in the box and verified against the chart — programming the FMS prior to departure and setting the flight director and autopilot controls for the departure is a graded skill (AA.VI.B.S2), and the database must be current and appropriate (S4).
What climb performance does every IFR departure assume, and how do you convert a gradient to a rate?
Design assumes crossing the DER at least 35 feet up, climbing to 400 feet above DER elevation before the first turn, and a minimum climb gradient of 200 ft/NM unless a higher gradient is published (IPH ch. 1). Convert with groundspeed: the IPH example — a required gradient of 297 ft/NM at 180 knots groundspeed requires about 892 fpm (IPH ch. 1, rate-of-climb table). Every TPP booklet carries the table. The airline-scale trap: gradients are easy at V2 and harder as the airplane accelerates — groundspeed, not airspeed, sets the required rate.
What is a Visual Climb Over Airport (VCOA), and when would you use one (AA.VI.B.K1)?
A departure option for an IFR aircraft, operating in VMC at or above the specified ceiling and visibility, to conduct visual climbing turns over the airport to the published "climb-to" altitude, then proceed on the instrument portion of the departure. A VCOA is developed when obstacles farther than 3 SM from the airport require a climb gradient of more than 200 ft/NM — you trade the gradient for circling climbs in visual conditions. It's published in the Takeoff Minimums and (Obstacle) DP section of the TPP, and pilots are required to notify ATC when executing one (IPH ch. 1).
What is a Diverse Vector Area (AA.VI.B.K1)?
A DVA lets ATC issue random radar vectors to departing traffic below the MVA or minimum IFR altitude — the area has been assessed to diverse-departure TERPS criteria for obstacle and terrain avoidance. Its existence is noted in the Takeoff Minimums and ODP section of the TPP.
Cautions from the IPH:
A DVA may require a climb gradient greater than the standard 200 ft/NM (stated in the DVA text)
The assessment covers departures that remain within the specified area
Obstacle clearance is not provided by ATC until the controller begins providing navigational guidance (IPH ch. 1)
Radios fail right after takeoff in IMC. What do you do (AA.VI.B.K4)?
91.185. If you encounter VFR conditions, continue VFR and land as soon as practicable (91.185(b)). Otherwise fly:
Route: assigned; if being vectored, direct to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance; then expected; then filed (91.185(c)(1)).
Altitude: the highest, for each route segment, of last assigned, the minimum IFR altitude, or the altitude ATC advised to expect (91.185(c)(2)).
The vector case is the departure-specific edge: on a radar SID, the "fix specified in the vector clearance" is your lifeline. Know the first fix and the top altitude before brake release — that's part of understanding the SID in its entirety (IPH ch. 1).
What are low, close-in obstacles, and why do they matter to a transport airplane?
Obstacles within 1 NM of the DER that penetrate the 40:1 obstacle clearance surface — published in the TPP (IPH ch. 1). They're too close for a gradient to fix; the note tells you what and where they are so you can see and avoid, or plan the runway differently. For a jet with a long takeoff roll and screen-height crossing near 35 feet, the margin over a close-in obstacle can be thinner than the chart's tidy gradient suggests — this feeds the runway-selection and performance judgment the departure briefing has to carry.
Deep Dive
Automation on the departure
The instrument-rating version of this task was about tracking courses. The ATP version is about making the automation track them — and catching it when it doesn't (AA.VI.B.R3).
How do you set up the FMS and guidance for a departure, and what do you verify (AA.VI.B.S2, S4)?
Load, don't build: select the procedure and transition from the current navigation database (S4) and compare the FMS legs — fixes, courses, altitude and speed restrictions — against the charted procedure
Set the flight director and autopilot controls for the initial clearance: heading or nav mode, altitude preselect to the first limit, speed target per the profile (S2)
Confirm the navigation source the guidance will follow, and identify ground-based facilities as necessary (S1)
Brief the automation plan out loud: what mode flies the runway heading segment, where nav engages, what the first level-off is
The graded failure mode isn't a dead box — it's a clean-looking departure flown in the wrong mode. State mode changes, confirm captures, and keep raw data in the scan.
ATC amends your SID right before takeoff. What's the crew discipline?
Reprogram, verify, rebrief — in that order, and before the takeoff if workload allows. The pilot not flying makes the FMS change; both pilots compare the new route against the amended clearance; the parts of the briefing that changed get rebriefed (ACS Appendix 3 allows briefing only the changes after the first satisfactory briefing). The task's communications skill wraps this: establish two-way communications, use proper phraseology, and comply in a timely manner with all ATC instructions and airspace restrictions (AA.VI.B.S5). A rushed runway change is exactly where a wrong-transition departure gets loaded and flown.
Who separates you from traffic on a SID, and what does that not cover (AA.VI.B.R2)?
When you accept a SID or radar vectors, ATC is responsible for traffic separation — but you're expected to remain vigilant scanning for traffic when departing in visual conditions, and to notify ATC if a clearance would endanger safety (IPH ch. 1). The risk element pairs that with the limitations of traffic-avoidance equipment: your traffic display supplements see-and-avoid, it doesn't replace it. Fly the procedure as charted — the design considers obstacle clearance — and keep eyes outside while the weather allows it.
How do the departure equipment categories differ (Non-RNAV, RNAV, Radar)?
From IPH ch. 1:
Non-RNAV DP — flown with conventional ground-based NAVAIDs (some FMSs are certified to fly these from conventional sensor inputs)
RNAV DP — for RNAV-equipped aircraft (GPS, VOR/DME, DME/DME); automated vertical navigation is not required; RNAV procedures not requiring GPS carry "RADAR REQUIRED"
Radar DP — ATC vectors you to a route, NAVAID, or fix; "RADAR REQUIRED" is annotated
The departure task expects you to select the appropriate procedure and the facilities that go with it (AA.VI.B.S1); AC 90-100 is the ACS's reference for U.S. terminal and en route RNAV operations.
Task C. Arrival Procedures
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) arrival procedures.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What are the ACS tolerances for the arrival procedures task — and what's the VREF floor about?
Airspeed/V-speed ±10 knots, but not less than reference landing approach speed (VREF) if applicable; heading ±10°; altitude ±100 feet, accurately tracking radials, courses, and bearings (AA.VI.C.S10). The VREF floor is the transport-category tell: on an arrival you're decelerating on a schedule, and the standard forbids buying tolerance by getting slow. You must also adhere to airspeed restrictions required by regulation, procedure, aircraft limitation, ATC, or the evaluator (S8) and establish descent rates consistent with the route segment, airplane operating characteristics, and safety (S9).
Cleared 'descend via the arrival.' What exactly does each clearance variant authorize (IPH ch. 3)?
"Cleared HADLY ONE arrival" — lateral routing only; charted altitudes are not authorized
"Cleared HADLY ONE arrival, descend and maintain FL240" — descend only to the assigned altitude and hold it until cleared lower
"Descend via the HARIS ONE arrival" — fly the lateral path and descend per the charted altitude restrictions
"Descend via … except cross BRUNO at one three thousand then maintain one zero thousand" — the arrival with named exceptions, then the assigned altitude
"Proceed direct MAHEM, descend via the MAHEM TWO arrival" — direct to the fix, then lateral and vertical per the chart
The ACS's added risk element is exactly this: ATC instructions that modify an arrival or discontinue/resume lateral or vertical navigation (AA.VI.C.R5). Restate what's still yours to fly and what just changed.
Are the altitudes and airspeeds printed on a STAR part of your clearance?
Not by themselves. Expected altitudes and airspeeds on a STAR are not part of the clearance until ATC includes them verbally — a STAR is a published routing that does not have the force of a clearance until issued specifically by ATC. MEAs printed on a STAR are not valid unless stated in the clearance — or in cases of lost communication (IPH ch. 3). That last clause is the arrival version of the comm-failure question (AA.VI.C.K4): radios gone, the charted altitudes come alive as your minimum IFR altitudes under 91.185(c)(2).
What descent and deceleration geometry is built into a STAR?
STARs typically include a descent gradient of about 318 ft/NM — about three degrees — varying to meet altitude restrictions, and they allow deceleration segments at waypoints with speed restrictions, typically adding 1 NM of distance for each 10 knots of speed reduction (IPH ch. 3). Rules of thumb for the raw-data cross-check: divide altitude-to-lose by 300 for the distance to start down, and multiply groundspeed by 5 for the 3° descent rate — 120 knots means 600 fpm (IPH ch. 3). If the box's path and your mental math disagree, believe the disagreement and investigate.
How does the FMS and autoflight setup differ for an RNAV STAR (AA.VI.C.K2, S2)?
RNAV STARs are designated RNAV 1 or RNAV 2; the designation appears in the chart notes. RNAV 1 STARs carry higher equipment requirements and often tighter RNP tolerances, and require pilots to use a CDI/flight director and/or autopilot in LNAV mode while operating on RNAV courses (IPH ch. 3).
Setup sequence:
Load the arrival from the current database (S4)
Verify legs against the chart
Set the guidance for the arrival (S2)
Know what your VNAV path is built from — aircraft performance, approach constraints, weather data, and weight — computed from top-of-descent to the end-of-descent waypoint (IPH ch. 3).
Nav-system fundamentals — orientation, interference, signal integrity (K5) — are unchanged from the instrument rating and covered in the IFR guide; the ATP delta is verifying the airplane and crew meet the arrival's RNAV 1 or RNAV 2 requirement before accepting it.
Who separates you from traffic on the arrival, and what does your traffic display not cover (AA.VI.C.R2, R3)?
On the charted arrival or vectors, ATC provides IFR separation — but the ACS keeps the responsibility to use see-and-avoid techniques when possible on you (R3), and an arrival descends you through the busiest traffic mix of the flight, often in and out of visual conditions. The paired risk is the equipment (R2): the traffic display and its alerts supplement the scan, they don't replace it — they only show traffic equipped to be seen, and display range and update limits mean the picture is never complete. The departure-side version of this contract is developed under Task VI.B; the arrival deltas: eyes outside whenever the weather allows, and identify the traffic you're following before accepting a visual approach behind it.
What does a jet-speed deceleration plan look like on an arrival?
The IPH's example schedule: plan 250 knots at 25 NM from the threshold, 200 knots at 20 NM, 150 knots at 15 NM until reaching gear and flap speeds — never below approach speed (IPH ch. 3). That last clause is the same floor the ACS writes into the tolerance (not less than VREF, AA.VI.C.S10). The planning point: energy is altitude plus speed, and a "slam-dunk" clearance that's fine on altitude can still be unflyable on speed — say "unable" early rather than diving and decelerating at the bottom.
Lost comms on the arrival — what altitude do you fly, and when do you leave the clearance limit (91.185)?
Altitude is the highest, per route segment, of assigned, minimum IFR altitude, or expected (91.185(c)(2)) — and on a STAR the charted altitudes become valid minimums in lost comm (IPH ch. 3). At the clearance limit:
If it's a fix from which an approach begins — start descent/approach as close as possible to the EFC if received, otherwise the flight-planned ETA (91.185(c)(3)(i))
If it's not such a fix — leave the limit at the EFC, or if none, upon arrival over it, proceed to an approach fix, and begin descent/approach as close as possible to the ETA (91.185(c)(3)(ii))
Why does the ACS flag sterile-cockpit discipline for arrivals?
Because the arrival is a critical phase of flight and altitude/course deviations cluster there. The IPH points at the sterile flight deck rules — no duties during a critical phase except those required for the safe operation of the aircraft, and no non-essential activity permitted by the PIC (IPH ch. 3, citing 135.100; the part 121 rule is its parallel). Company calls, PA announcements, paperwork — all deferred. On the checkride this shows up as crew coordination and checklists completed in a timely manner, without burying the monitoring pilot during the descent (AA.VI.C.S3).
Deep Dive
Flying the descent, not riding it
The evaluator's question underneath this task: when the automation is descending, do you still know where the airplane is on the profile, and can you take the profile back when ATC breaks it?
ATC says 'delete speed restrictions' — or takes you off the arrival and later says 'resume the arrival.' What must you sort out (AA.VI.C.R5)?
Three questions, answered out loud as a crew:
Lateral: am I still on the charted path, or on a vector? If vectored off, the arrival's altitudes and speeds no longer apply until ATC clears you to rejoin
Vertical: what altitude am I cleared to right now — a "descend via" that was interrupted does not silently resume; expect ATC to restate the vertical clearance
Speed: which restrictions were deleted — charted ones, ATC-assigned ones, or both — and what does the FMS think? The box may still command the old profile
Then make the FMS match the clearance, not the other way around. This is the automation-management risk (R4) in its most common form.
What's your cross-check when VNAV is flying the descent?
Monitor with the same raw-data habits the task grades for tracking (AA.VI.C.S10):
Distance vs. altitude: divide altitude-to-lose by 300 for the distance a 3° path needs (IPH ch. 3) — check it at every crossing restriction
Descent rate: groundspeed × 5 for the 3° rate; a rate wildly above that means the path is steep or the winds have shifted
Next constraint: verbalize the next fix, its altitude and speed, and whether the airplane will make it — before the FMS has to prove it
Deceleration: 1 NM per 10 knots (IPH ch. 3) — if the box needs to slow 60 knots in 3 miles, it won't
The MFD's profile awareness supplements this, but the barometric altimeter and the chart remain the authority.
How do you brief an arrival at airline scale?
The tasks in this Area share the ACS Appendix 3 briefing standard — cover what applies, then brief only changes later in the test. For the arrival, the load-bearing items:
Runway and approach to expect — broadcast by ATIS or the controller when there are two or more published procedures, and possibly not provided when visibility is 3 SM or better and the ceiling is at or above the highest initial approach altitude (IPH ch. 3)
Descend-via status
Crossing restrictions you personally consider bust-risks
Deceleration plan
Transition from the STAR's termination — charted route to an IAF, or a plan for vectors if none is depicted (IPH ch. 3)
Where does the STAR end, and what's the plan when it ends in vectors?
A STAR provides the transition from the en route structure to an approach gate, outer fix, instrument approach fix, or arrival waypoint, usually terminating with an instrument or visual approach procedure (IPH ch. 3). For STARs charted with radar vectors to final, look for routes from the terminating fixes to the IAF — if no route is depicted, have a predetermined plan of action to fly from the STAR's end (IPH ch. 3). That plan is also your comm-failure answer for the last ten miles: know which fix you'd proceed to and which approach you'd fly.
Task D. Non-precision Approaches
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with performing non-precision approach procedures.
References: 14 CFR part 91; AC 120-108; AIM; Chart Supplements; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-15, FAA-H-8083-16, FAA-H-8083-25; Terminal Procedures Publications
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
How do the ATP non-precision tolerances differ from the instrument-rating standard?
Everything tightens on final. Prior to the final approach segment: altitude ±100 feet, selected heading ±5°, airspeed ±10 knots, accurately tracking (AA.VI.D.S9). On the final approach segment: no more than ¼-scale CDI deflection, airspeed ±5 knots of the selected value, and altitude above MDA +50/−0 feet to the VDP or missed approach point (AA.VI.D.S12). Compare the instrument rating: ¾-scale, ±10 knots, MDA +100/−0. A third the lateral corridor, half the speed band, half the altitude window — flown in an airplane covering the final segment roughly twice as fast.
What does '¼-scale deflection' actually mean on your display (ACS Appendix 3)?
A ¼-scale deflection means the indication is displaced ¼ of the distance it may be deflected from the on-path indication (ACS Appendix 3, Vertical or Lateral Deviation Standard) — instrument markings vary, so the ACS defines it explicitly. On a five-dot display that's about one dot from center; on a two-dot display, half a dot. Know what a quarter of your scale looks like before the check, because the evaluator does.
Which non-precision approaches must you fly on the ATP practical test (ACS Appendix 3)?
At least two different non-precision approaches in simulated or actual IMC:
At least one including a course reversal (procedure turn, hold-in-lieu, or the course reversal from an IAF on a Terminal Arrival Area (TAA))
At least one from an IAF, without the autopilot and without radar vectors — the yaw damper and flight director are allowed
One flown with backup or partial panel instrumentation or navigation display, representing a realistic failure mode for your avionics
Advisory vertical guidance may be used, and the evaluator decides whether each approach ends in a landing or a miss (ACS Appendix 3).
What is a DDA, and why does the ACS pair it with the MDA (AA.VI.D.S10)?
A DDA (derived decision altitude) is the altitude above the MDA where the go-around must begin, ensuring the airplane doesn't sink below the published MDA during the missed-approach transition (AC 120-108 para 3.7, citing 91.175) — necessary because pilots must not descend below the MDA once executing a miss. At the DDA there are exactly two courses of action: continue visually with the 91.175 references in sight, or execute the missed approach without descending below the MDA, proceeding on track to the MAP before any turn (AC 120-108 para 3.8.1). The +50/−0-foot skill tolerance (S12) is this discipline in miniature: the bottom of the window is hard.
Describe the CDFA technique and why operators use it (AA.VI.D.K4).
Continuous descent final approach: a constant-rate, constant-angle descent from the FAF, timed to intersect the MDA near the point a normal landing descent continues to the runway — instead of dive-and-drive level-offs. It's built on the stabilized-approach concept: for turbojets, before descending below 1,000 feet above the airport or TDZE on any straight-in instrument approach —
Approved landing (or circling) configuration
Engines spooled up
On speed and flight path
Descent rate less than 1,000 fpm
(IPH ch. 4). The ACS folds the same components into its own definition — stable speed, stable descent rate, stable vertical path, and departure from the FAF configured for landing (ACS Appendix 3, Stabilized Approach Criteria). Cross the FAF at final approach speed, configured — especially on timing-dependent approaches (AC 120-108 para 3.6).
Missed approach from a CDFA before the MAP — what's the procedure?
From the DDA:
Do not descend below the MDA
Unless ATC has issued climbout instructions, fly the published missed approach procedure
Proceed on track to the MAP before accomplishing any turn (AC 120-108 para 3.9)
The published miss provides obstacle clearance only from the missed approach segment at or above the MAP, assuming a climb of 200 ft/NM or higher as published (IPH ch. 4). Turning early trades protected airspace for hope.
LP versus LNAV at ATP standards — what actually changes for you (AA.VI.D.K1)?
What changes is the tolerance interaction: LP's sensitivity increases as you approach the runway, so the same ¼-scale standard demands progressively smaller corrections, exactly like a localizer. The definitions themselves don't change from the instrument rating — LNAV is linear-scaled lateral GPS guidance; LP uses WAAS for localizer-like angular guidance, published where terrain or obstacles preclude a vertically guided line — both flown to an MDA (covered in the IFR guide, Task VI.A). Know your navigator's annunciations cold (K2): the ACS expects you to recognize inaccurate or inoperative instrumentation and act (S5), and a mode that never activates is a mandatory miss, not a judgment call.
What's the frequency and nav-source discipline before a non-precision approach (AA.VI.D.R2, S3)?
Select, tune, identify, and confirm the operational status of the navigation equipment to be used for the approach (AA.VI.D.S3). The risk the ACS names is selecting the wrong navigation frequency (R2) — classic setups: the localizer or VOR for a parallel or nearby procedure, the ILS tuned when the clearance is the VOR, or a CDI still showing GPS while the briefed needle is a localizer.
Defenses:
Identify the facility (Morse ident or the navigator's decoded ident)
Verify the loaded procedure's fixes against the chart
Confirm the nav source annunciation on the display that's actually flying the approach
Signal-integrity and interference fundamentals (K3) are unchanged from the instrument rating — covered in the IFR guide; the ATP behavior is confirming status before the approach and acting on a loss-of-integrity annunciation when it appears (K2, S5).
How do you adjust the published MDA/DDA and visibility for the day's conditions (AA.VI.D.S10)?
Work the chart against reality:
NOTAMs — procedure NOTAMs can raise minimums or make lines of minima unusable
Inoperative aircraft or navigation equipment — losing a sensor may drop you to a higher line of minima
Inoperative visual aids — apply the TPP's Inoperative Components Table; the IFH example: an ILS with a malfunctioning MALSR can be flown if minimum visibility is increased by ¼ mile — and watch for chart notes like "Inoperative Table does not apply to ALS" (IFH ch. 1)
Aircraft approach category — flying final faster than your category's band means the higher category minimums apply (IPH ch. 4)
Under part 121 there's a gate before any of that matters: you may not continue past the FAF unless a weather report exists and reports visibility at or above the procedure's minimums (121.651(b)) — details under the precision task.
What makes an approach 'unstable,' and what's the required response (AA.VI.D.R5)?
Unstable: any stabilized-approach component missing below the gate —
Configuration not final
Speed off target
Descent rate excessive — greater than about 1,000 fpm below 1,000 feet is unacceptable in either the instrument or visual portion, a human-perception limit (IPH ch. 4)
Flight path not established
Response: a go-around, decided by criteria, not by feel. The ACS treats attempting to salvage as the risk; the skill it wants is a stabilized descent to the appropriate altitude (S11) and a prompt miss when the picture isn't right (S13).
Deep Dive
Building the CDFA profile
The examiner will hand you a chart and expect a plan, not a hope. The math is the same math from the instrument rating — the difference is you're expected to have done it before the FAF, every time.
How do you fly the MDA window at +50/−0 with a jet's inertia?
Plan to arrive at the DDA decision, not at a level-off. If the operator's CDFA procedure has you go missed at the DDA, the window takes care of itself — the airplane never levels at the MDA. If you do level (for example, running to a VDP on a timing approach), lead the level-off consistent with your descent rate, trim, and keep the FD or pitch reference on the horizon line rather than chasing the altimeter. The tolerance runs to the VDP or MAP (AA.VI.D.S12) — brief which of those points ends your level segment and what happens there before the FAF.
What are the crew callouts that hold a non-precision final together?
Fly your operator's flow; the pattern the evaluator expects to hear (per the ACS's briefing and CRM threads, Appendix 3; AA.VI.D.S7):
Approaching the FAF: configuration confirmed, final approach speed set, missed approach reviewed
FAF: time started if applicable, descent rate called
Through each stepdown: altitude verified against the chart by the monitoring pilot
Approaching minimums / minimums: the decision callout — runway cues or go-around
Any deviation beyond the operator's limits: called immediately, corrected or rejected
The ACS grades the underlying skills directly: checklist timing (S7), configuration and airspeed for conditions (S8), and MFD use to monitor position and wind drift (S14).
What's different about the partial-panel non-precision approach at ATP level?
The requirement is calibrated to your airplane: backup or partial panel instrumentation or navigation display, depending on the aircraft's avionics configuration, representing a realistic failure mode (ACS Appendix 3). In a glass transport that usually means standby instruments or a reverted/composite display, not a covered vacuum gyro. The graded skill is recognizing what failed and acting (AA.VI.D.S5) — which display survives, which nav source still feeds it, and how the ¼-scale standard will be judged on the surviving needle. Rehearse the reversion in your type before the check; the failure the evaluator picks will be one your airplane can actually have.
Task E. Precision Approaches
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with performing precision approach procedures.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What are the ATP tolerances on a precision final?
From the FAF to DA/DH: no more than ¼-scale deflection of either the vertical or lateral guidance indications, and airspeed ±5 knots of the desired value, on a stabilized final (AA.VI.E.S12). Before the final approach segment: altitude ±100 feet, selected heading ±5°, airspeed ±10 knots (S9). The ACS defines ¼ scale as the needle displaced ¼ of its total available deflection (ACS Appendix 3). The instrument-rating standard was ¾ scale and ±10 knots — the ATP corridor is a third the width, at transport final-approach speeds.
Which precision approaches must you fly on the ATP practical test (ACS Appendix 3)?
At least two precision approaches in simulated or actual IMC, flown to the DA using aircraft navigation equipment for centerline and vertical guidance:
At least one without the autopilot, with the manually flown segment beginning no later than the FAF — raw data or flight director, at the evaluator's discretion
One should be flown with backup or partial panel instrumentation or navigation display representing a realistic failure mode
One may be flown via the autopilot, if equipped — provided the DA/DH does not violate the authorized minimum altitude for autopilot operation
The evaluator decides whether each ends in a landing or a missed approach (ACS Appendix 3).
What is the 'authorized minimum altitude for autopilot operation,' and where do you find it?
Every autopilot has a minimum engagement/use height for approach — a certification and OpSpecs limit that varies by installation, which is why the ACS states the coupled-approach option only works provided the DA/DH does not violate the authorized minimum altitude for autopilot operation (ACS Appendix 3). The number itself is type-specific: it lives in your AFM and, for an operator, the OpSpecs. Expect the oral question in exactly that form: "Can you stay coupled to this DA?" — and answer from your airplane's limitation, not a generic figure.
What descent rate do you establish at glidepath capture (AA.VI.E.S11)?
Roughly groundspeed × 5 in fpm for a 3° path — 120 knots means 600 fpm (IPH ch. 3's descent rule of thumb). Compute it before the FAF so it's already established at the point where vertical guidance begins: the ACS calls for a predetermined rate of descent that approximates what's needed to follow the vertical guidance. Capturing the glideslope with the power and pitch already trending toward that rate is what makes the ¼-scale standard flyable; capturing it level at approach power and then chasing produces the classic porpoise the evaluator is watching for.
What are the lowest authorized ILS minimums by category (IPH ch. 4)?
With all required ground and airborne components operative:
CAT I — DH 200 feet, RVR 2,400 (RVR 1,800 with touchdown zone and centerline lighting)
CAT II — DH 100 feet, RVR 1,200
CAT IIIa — no DH or DH below 100 feet, RVR not less than 700
CAT IIIb — no DH or DH below 50 feet, RVR less than 700 but not less than 150
CAT IIIc — no DH and no RVR limitation — and to date, no U.S. operator has OpSpecs approval for IIIc
CAT II and III require special certification for operators, pilots, aircraft, and airborne/ground equipment; the authorizations and minimum RVRs live in OpSpecs Part C (IPH ch. 4).
What's special about RVR use on a CAT II approach?
Touchdown zone RVR is required, must be used, and is controlling for all CAT II ILS operations — and unlike CAT I (which permits substituting mid-field RVR when touchdown-zone RVR is unavailable), CAT II permits no substitutions for TDZ RVR (IPH ch. 4). Under part 121 the broader gate applies to every approach: you may not continue past the FAF unless the latest weather report puts visibility at or equal to or more than the procedure's minimums (121.651(b)).
Weather drops below minimums after you've passed the FAF — may you continue (121.651(c))?
Yes — this is the part 121 "look-see" provision. Having begun the final approach segment in compliance with 121.651(b), a later below-minimums report lets you continue to DA/DH or MDA. Below that, you may continue only if:
The airplane is continuously in a position to land within the touchdown zone, using normal maneuvers and rate of descent
Flight visibility is not less than prescribed
A required visual reference is distinctly visible and identifiable
This is the same three-part logic as 91.175(c), with the TDZ-touchdown clause added for parts 121/135 (121.651(c)). And no landing when flight visibility is below the prescribed minimum (91.175(d)).
DH versus Alert Height in a CAT III operation?
Depending on the autoflight systems, some aircraft require a DH to ensure landing in the touchdown zone, and some use an Alert Height as a final cross-check of the autoflight system's performance. Both are based on radio altitude, and the values come from the specific aircraft's AFM (IPH ch. 4). Conceptually: a DH is a decision about seeing; an alert height is a decision about the machine — below it, a fail-operational system continues the autoland unless a failure is announced. Which philosophy your airplane uses is a type question; answer it from the AFM.
You go missed at DA and the airplane momentarily dips below it. Did you just bust the ride?
No — as long as the descent doesn't continue. The ACS is explicit that continuing below DA/DH without the runway environment in sight is unsatisfactory, but most airplanes briefly descend below DA/DH from momentum when the miss is initiated at the DA — and that momentary descent does not constitute unsatisfactory performance as long as it does not continue (ACS Appendix 3, Task I discussion). The decision must be made at DA: immediately initiate the miss if the references aren't distinctly visible and identifiable (AA.VI.E.S13). What's graded is the promptness of the decision, not the physics after it.
Deep Dive
Hand-flying to ¼ scale
The manually flown approach — required, beginning no later than the FAF — is where the tolerance gets honest. The technique is the instrument rating's, compressed.
How do corrections change inside the FAF to hold ¼-scale at jet speeds?
Smaller and sooner. The needles' angular sensitivity increases all the way down, and at transport groundspeeds the same heading error builds displacement roughly twice as fast as it did in a trainer. The working method:
Fly the flight director when authorized — but cross-check raw data; the manual approach may be raw-data at the evaluator's discretion (ACS Appendix 3)
Heading changes of a degree or two; hold each correction and watch the trend rather than re-correcting on every needle twitch
Pitch changes measured in tens of feet per minute against the precomputed rate (AA.VI.E.S11)
Trim and thrust stable: on-speed ±5 knots (S12) is thrust discipline — configuration and airspeed established before the FAF for the conditions (S8), then leave it alone
Deviations you can't promptly stop are the cue to go around, not to work harder at salvage (AA.VI.E.R5).
What's your response to a flagged or failed guidance indication on final (AA.VI.E.S5, K2)?
Recognize, announce, act. On a precision final, the response is rarely creative: losing the vertical guidance below the point where another line of minima can be briefed means a missed approach; a disagreement between displays means reverting to the surviving source per your type's procedure and deciding whether the approach is still authorized. The skills behind this: select, tune, identify, and confirm the operational status of navigation equipment before the approach (S3), and recognize if any flight instrumentation is inaccurate or inoperative, and take appropriate action (S5). The oral version asks for your airplane's annunciations — flags, miscompare monitors, autoland status — from the AFM (K2).
How do inoperative components change a precision approach's minimums (AA.VI.E.S10, K1)?
Adjust the published DA/DH and visibility for NOTAMs, inoperative airplane or navigation equipment, or inoperative visual aids (S10). Mechanics: consult the TPP's Inoperative Components Table — the IFH's example raises visibility ¼ mile for a malfunctioning MALSR — and honor chart notes that exempt specific components (IFH ch. 1). Losing a required component of the guidance itself is different from losing a light: lights raise the visibility; a dead glideslope changes the approach into a localizer-only procedure flown to an MDA under the non-precision task's rules. Under 121, remember the OpSpecs may authorize different (including lower) minimums than the chart — the OpSpecs govern (121.651(a); IPH ch. 1).
Why do simultaneous parallel ILS operations matter to how you fly the final?
Because the corridor is real: airports run simultaneous dependent, simultaneous independent, and simultaneous independent close parallel approaches, with diagonal separation as tight as 1 NM for dependent pairs (IPH ch. 4). Chart notes may impose flight director or autopilot requirements for simultaneous operations (IPH ch. 4). A localizer excursion on a close parallel isn't just a tolerance bust — it's an incursion into someone else's protected airspace. The ¼-scale ATP standard and the airline environment are the same requirement wearing two hats.
Task F. Landing from a Precision Approach
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with performing the procedures for a landing from a precision approach.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What are the tolerances for landing from a precision approach?
Two sets, stitched together:
From DA/DH to the visual maneuvering point: desired airspeed ±5 knots, vertical and lateral guidance within ¼-scale deflection (AA.VI.F.S1) — the instrument standard doesn't relax just because you can see
Touchdown: at the aiming point markings −250/+500 feet, or where there are no aiming point markings, 750 to 1,500 feet from the approach threshold (S4)
Then positive control through the rollout, using drag and braking devices as appropriate to a stop (S5), with SRM/CRM (S6) and runway incursion avoidance (S7).
Why does a part 121 pilot care so much about the touchdown zone?
Because the regulation writes it into the approach itself: below DA, operations under part 121 or 135 require the descent rate to allow touchdown within the touchdown zone of the runway of intended landing (91.175(c)(1); 121.651(c)(1)). Floating past the zone isn't a style problem — it invalidates the condition that authorized you below DA in the first place, and the answer is a go-around. The ACS touchdown window (−250/+500 feet from the aiming point) is the same idea expressed as a checkride tolerance.
How do you manage the transition from instruments to visual references (AA.VI.F.R9)?
Divide the work. In a crew, it's common practice for the PM to call out the vertical speed during the transition, confirming the instruments are being monitored so more of the PF's attention can go to the visual portion — and the PM announces any deviation from stabilized approach criteria (IPH ch. 4). Cautions from the IPH: transitioning to visual in shallow fog may leave inadequate visibility to flare, so always be prepared to go around; single-pilot transitions are markedly harder because one pilot must keep flying the instruments while acquiring the runway (IPH ch. 4). The instrument crosscheck continues to touchdown — that's what the ¼-scale-to-visual-maneuvering tolerance (S1) is measuring.
What can you use at 200 feet that you can't use at 99 feet (91.175(c)(3))?
The approach light system alone. Descent below DA/MDA requires at least one of the ten listed visual references distinctly visible and identifiable — but using the approach lights as the sole reference, you may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation unless the red terminating bars or red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable (91.175(c)(3)(i)). Those red bars are features of the ALSF-1/ALSF-2 systems that serve precision runways; a runway with a MALSR has no red bars to show you, so at 100 feet you need something else from the list — threshold, markings, lights, TDZ, or the runway itself.
What does approach lighting buy the operator (AA.VI.F.K2)?
Lower visibility minimums. Full configurations pair with the lowest RVRs — CAT I to RVR 1,800 requires touchdown zone and centerline lighting in addition to the approach lights (IPH ch. 4). Precision approaches get visibility credit for any approach light configuration, and a non-precision approach (250-foot HAT) configured with a MALSR, SSALR, or ALSF-1 normally results in published visibility of ½ SM (IPH ch. 4). Take the lights away and the Inoperative Components Table raises the visibility (IFH ch. 1). Runway markings matter to this task specifically: the aiming point markings are your touchdown reference (S4), and the signs/markings/lighting knowledge element (K2) extends through the rollout and taxi-in.
What advisories must you fold into the landing decision (AA.VI.F.S2)?
Advisories from ATC or the evaluator (S2):
NOTAMs
Windshear
Wake turbulence
Runway surface and braking conditions
Other operational considerations
Each maps to a risk element: runway selection against aircraft limitations, available distance, surface, and wind (R1); wake turbulence (R2); attempting to land from an unstable approach (R7); and flying below the glidepath (R8) — short of the TDZ is as disqualifying as long. LAHSO acceptance (R11) is a crew decision against your operator's authorization and the available landing distance.
Can you get credit for this task without actually landing (ACS Appendix 3)?
Yes. In an airplane, if you've flown the approach to a point where a safe landing and full stop could have been made but circumstances beyond your control prevent the landing, the evaluator may give credit — and credit may also be given for Task VI.I (Missed Approach) or Area III Task J (Go-Around/Rejected Landing) when the applicable criteria are met (ACS Appendix 3). Also remember the test-level requirement: at least three actual landings, at least one to a full stop, with landing tasks combinable across Areas (ACS Appendix 3, Area III notes).
Deep Dive
From DA to the 1,000-foot markers
The failure mode this task exists to catch is the "duck under" — trading a stable coupled final for a scramble of visual improvisation in the last 200 feet.
Why is flying below the glidepath singled out as a risk (AA.VI.F.R8)?
Because the visual segment tempts you down. At DA the runway appears foreshortened in low visibility, and the common illusion-driven response is to push toward it. The protections you had on the guidance evaporate below it: obstacle surfaces near the threshold are assessed for the published path, and 91.175 requires a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers to a TDZ touchdown (91.175(c)(1)). The ACS answer is mechanical: keep the glidepath needle inside ¼ scale all the way to the visual maneuvering point (S1), crossing the threshold at the nominal height the procedure was built for — the IPH's stabilized-approach material puts the threshold crossing at about 50 feet above TDZE (IPH ch. 4).
What does the rollout look like at ATP standards (AA.VI.F.S5)?
Positive airplane control throughout, using drag and braking devices as appropriate to come to a stop (S5). Fly the airplane onto the runway in the touchdown window — not floated beyond it hunting for smoothness — then work the sequence:
Speedbrakes/spoilers verified deployed
Reverse or beta as applicable
Braking appropriate to the reported braking action and the distance remaining
PM: deployment verification and speed callouts per the operator's procedures (S6). Runway incursion avoidance (S7): exit where planned, hold short of everything you haven't been cleared to cross, and finish the after-landing items only when clear of the protected area.
How does wake turbulence factor into a low-visibility landing (AA.VI.F.R2)?
You may be landing behind traffic you never see. The defenses are procedural rather than visual:
Note the preceding aircraft's type and position from ATC advisories (S2)
Expect ATC's wake-separation spacing
Keep the approach on or above the glidepath to touchdown at or beyond the preceding traffic's — enforced by the ¼-scale discipline (S1) and the aiming-point window (S4)
A go-around is the standing answer if spacing collapses inside the FAF.
What belongs in the approach-and-landing briefing that specifically serves this task?
The landing-side items from the ACS Appendix 3 briefing list:
Landing runway
Instrument approach procedure
DA/DH
Missed approach procedures
Initial rate of descent
Time to missed approach
Expectations of the other crewmembers during the approach and landing
Add the day's variables from S2 — runway condition and braking reports, LAHSO in effect, windshear advisories — and the touchdown-zone commitment: the point at which, if not down, you go around. Briefing the go-around as the default outcome is what keeps R7 (landing from an unstable approach) from ever becoming the finding.
Task G. Circling Approach
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with performing a circling approach procedure.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What does the ATP circling approach task require you to demonstrate (ACS Appendix 3)?
The scenario must include visual maneuvering from the final approach course to a base or downwind leg appropriate for the landing runway — not a token turn. You may circle to a runway less than 90° offset from the final approach course, provided you make at least 90° of total heading change (ACS Appendix 3, Task G). Skills demonstrated:
Comply with the procedure considering turbulence, windshear, and your airplane's maneuvering capability and approach category (AA.VI.G.S1)
Confirm traffic direction and comply with ATC restrictions (S2)
Maintain crew coordination and checklists (S3)
What are the circling tolerances?
Until descending below the MDA (or the preselected circling altitude above it), you must hold these tolerances (AA.VI.G.S5):
Airspeed: ±5 knots
Heading/track: ±5°
Altitude: +100/−0 feet
The descent must also be planned: establish the approach and landing configuration and a descent rate that ensures arrival at the MDA — or the preselected circling altitude above it — prior to the missed approach point (S4). The −0 floor is the heart of it: the circling MDA is an obstacle-clearance surface, not a target.
How do the approach categories work, and which minimums must you use (AA.VI.G.K1)?
Category comes from VREF, or 1.3 VSO at maximum certificated landing weight if VREF isn't specified — it's assigned at certification, is permanent, and you may never use a lower category's minimums. Speed bands:
Category
Speed (IAS)
A
less than 91
B
91 to less than 121
C
121 to less than 141
D
141 to less than 166
E
166 or more
Operating faster than your category's upper limit — straight-in or circling — requires the higher category's minimums: a Category B airplane circling at 145 knots uses Category D minimums (IPH ch. 4). Situations that push you up-category: overweight emergency returns, flap-inoperative approaches, icing speed additives (IPH ch. 4).
Why did the FAA expand the circling protected areas, and what does it mean for a jet?
Under FAA Order 8260.3 Change 21, circling approach radii grew with altitude: the IPH's example — a sea-level airport with a 1,500-foot HAA has a CAT C circling approach radius of 2.86 NM, a 68.5 percent increase over the pre-Change-21 radius. The purpose: give pilots protected airspace to maneuver instead of being forced into high-descent-rate, unstabilized finishes that the old tight radii produced (IPH ch. 4). The trap: charts built under the old criteria still exist, and published circling minimums provide obstacle clearance only within the protected area for your category — flying faster than category speed shrinks your margin two ways at once (IPH ch. 4).
How much obstacle protection does the circling MDA give you, and when may you leave it?
A minimum of 300 feet of obstacle clearance in the circling segment. Remain at or above the circling altitude until the aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers (IPH ch. 4; the same words as 91.175(c)(1)). That's why the ACS builds the maneuver on a base or downwind leg (AA.VI.G.S6): a recognizable pattern position is what makes "continuously in a position" a fact instead of a feeling.
You lose sight of the airport mid-circle. What's the procedure (AA.VI.G.R3, R7)?
Missed approach, immediately — 91.175(e)(2) requires it whenever an identifiable part of the airport is not distinctly visible during a circling maneuver at or above MDA, unless the loss is caused only by normal banking. Technique: make the initial climbing turn toward the landing runway, then maneuver to intercept and fly the missed approach course (IFH ch. 10). The turn direction depends on where you are in the circle, which is why the ACS requires you to brief and fly the miss-while-circling case: turn in the appropriate direction using the correct procedure and appropriately configure the airplane (AA.VI.G.S7). Executing a missed approach after the MAP while circling gets its own risk element (R7) because the published protection assumed you started at or above the MAP.
What is the circle-to-land limitation on an ATP certificate, and how is it removed (ACS Appendix 1)?
Through an approved air carrier training and checking program a pilot may receive a limitation restricting circling to VMC only — on the certificate it reads "ATP CIRC APCH VMC ONLY," and it can attach to the certificate, the type rating, or both. Removal requires evaluation on Tasks G and H of Area VI by a qualified evaluator: for the certificate-level limitation, in an airplane representative of a class for which the pilot holds ATP privileges (not necessarily the type); for a type-rating limitation, in that type — which also removes the certificate-level limitation. An FSTD may be used in accordance with an approved training program (ACS Appendix 1).
Why is circling at night or in marginal visibility treated as a distinct risk (AA.VI.G.R2)?
The IPH calls circling one of the most challenging maneuvers in the NAS, especially for CAT C and D turbine airplanes — low altitude, day and night, often with precipitation degrading visibility, depth perception, and the ability to judge the descent profile, usually to a runway without electronic descent guidance from the circling MDA down (IPH ch. 4). At night, unlighted obstacles inside the circling area may be invisible; where penetrating obstacles aren't marked and lighted, charts prohibit night circling outright (IPH ch. 4). Many operators answer R2 with policy — higher circling minimums or VMC-only circling; know yours.
Deep Dive
The preselected circling altitude
The ACS repeatedly says "the MDA, or the preselected circling altitude above the MDA" (AA.VI.G.S4, S5). That phrase is an operator technique the task formally blesses — and the examiner will want you to explain it.
Why circle at a preselected altitude above the MDA?
A higher, briefed circling altitude above the MDA buys stall margin, obstacle margin, and a more normal descent geometry to the runway — because the MDA plus a jet's wingspan plus a 30°-bank pattern turn is a thin place to live. Pick a round number above the MDA that still keeps you below the clouds; the expanded Change-21 protected areas were designed to let pilots use that extra airspace to maneuver instead of flying high descent rates (IPH ch. 4). The tolerance then applies at your chosen altitude: +100/−0 until you're in position to descend normally (S5). Brief the altitude, the pattern, and the descent point before the FAF — improvising them at the MDA is the unstable-finish risk (R5) in action.
How do you fly the geometry — headings, spacing, and the descent point?
Build a real pattern from the pieces the ACS names (S6): maneuver to a base or downwind for the landing runway. Practical scaffolding:
Displacement: offset from the runway far enough to allow a normal base turn — inside your category's protected radius, which you know from the chart's era and your category (IPH ch. 4)
Track discipline: the ±5° tolerance applies to your desired heading/track (S5) — announce the legs ("downwind heading 350, abeam in 20 seconds") so the PM can monitor something concrete
The descent point: leave the circling altitude only when continuously in position for a normal descent — for most patterns that's rolling out on base or final with the runway made (IPH ch. 4)
Configuration: landing configuration established per S4's stabilized descent requirement; no configuration surprises inside the circle
How do automation and navigation displays help — and hurt — while circling (AA.VI.G.R4)?
Help: the MFD's map keeps the runway, your track, and the protected-area picture in one place while your eyes are mostly outside; the heading bug flown in HDG mode gives the PM a track to monitor against the briefed pattern. Hurt: an autopilot still coupled to the final approach course will happily fly you away from the circle; a flight director commanding the old missed approach is compelling nonsense in your primary view. The operator-standard answer is to brief exactly what the automation does during the visual segment — what's engaged, what's armed, and who disconnects what at the MDA. The ACS grades it as risk management (R4) and as the configuration/coordination skills (S3, S4).
Task H. Landing from a Circling Approach
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with performing the procedures for a landing from a circling approach.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What are the standards for landing from a circling approach?
Keep the airport environment in sight and remain within the circling approach radius applicable to your approach category, to a position from which a stabilized descent to landing can be made (AA.VI.H.S1)
Align with the runway without excessive maneuvering and without exceeding normal operating limits — bank angle not to exceed 30° (S4)
Airspeed ±5 knots; if applicable, altitude +100/−0 feet and desired heading/track ±5° (S5)
Configured for landing (S6), runway and adjoining area scanned for traffic and obstructions (S7)
Touchdown at the aiming point markings −250/+500 feet, or 750 to 1,500 feet from the threshold where there are no aiming point markings (S8)
Positive control through the stop, using drag and braking devices as appropriate (S9), with CRM/SRM (S10) and runway incursion avoidance (S11)
Why does the ACS cap the bank at 30° here when no such number appears in the circling task?
The 30° bank cap (AA.VI.H.S4) exists because the final turn to the runway is where circling accidents happen — it forbids the classic salvage of overshooting final from a tight circle and steepening the bank at low altitude and approach speed, precisely the ACS's low-altitude maneuvering risk: stall, spin, or CFIT (R5). If runway alignment needs more than 30° of bank or "excessive maneuvering," the maneuver has already failed; the answer is the missed approach (R8), flown per Task VI.G's procedure — climbing turn toward the landing runway, then the missed approach course (IFH ch. 10).
How is the touchdown standard the same as the straight-in task — and why is it harder here?
Same window: aiming point −250/+500 feet, or 750–1,500 feet from the threshold (AA.VI.H.S8, matching AA.VI.F.S4). It's harder because you arrive at it from a pattern, not a glidepath: no vertical guidance from the circling altitude down, a rollout onto final that may be short, and energy set by your own pattern geometry rather than a coupled descent. That's why S1's phrase matters — maneuver to a position from which a stabilized descent to landing can be made. The descent from the circling altitude is planned at the briefing, not discovered on final. Approach lighting systems and runway/taxiway signs, markings, and lighting (K2) are the same set covered under Task VI.F — here the aiming point markings are your touchdown reference from a visual pattern instead of a glidepath.
What has to be true about configuration before the final descent (AA.VI.H.S6)?
The airplane is configured for landing — and at ATP scale that means configured early, in the pattern, not during the final turn. Late configuration changes at circling altitude are destabilizing in exactly the way the stabilized-approach concept prohibits: for turbojets, landing (or circling) configuration, engines spooled, on speed and path, descent rate under 1,000 fpm before descending below the minimum stabilized approach height (IPH ch. 4). The landing checklist is completed per the crew coordination skill (S3), and the final descent begins with nothing left to change but the flare.
What ATC advisories shape the circling landing decision (AA.VI.H.S2, R1)?
The same set as the precision-landing task drives the circling landing decision:
ATC advisories (S2): NOTAMs, windshear, wake turbulence, runway surface, braking conditions, and other operational considerations
Runway selection (R1): weighed against aircraft limitations, available distance, surface conditions, and wind
The circling twist: you often chose this maneuver because of wind — the tailwind that made the straight-in unusable. Confirm the traffic direction (VI.G S2 carries in), verify the landing distance for the actual runway and conditions, and treat LAHSO (R9) with the same authorization-and-distance discipline as any landing clearance.
Can you get credit for this task without an actual landing (ACS Appendix 3)?
Yes — same relief as the precision landing: if the approach was flown to a point where a safe landing and full stop could have been made and circumstances beyond your control prevented it, the evaluator may credit the task, or credit Task VI.I (Missed Approach) or Area III Task J (Go-Around/Rejected Landing) when their criteria are met (ACS Appendix 3, Task H). Remember the test still requires three actual landings, one to a full stop overall (ACS Appendix 3, Area III).
Deep Dive
The last 90 degrees
Everything before the base turn was Task VI.G. This task grades what happens when the runway stops being a place you're watching and becomes a place you're landing.
Walk the maneuver from downwind to touchdown as a crew.
Downwind: landing configuration complete, landing checklist done (S3, S6), airspeed on the briefed circling speed ±5 knots (S5); PM monitors track against the briefed pattern and calls the abeam point
Base turn: begun at the briefed displacement; bank shallow, never past 30° (S4); PF divides attention between the runway and the flight instruments; PM calls airspeed and descent rate — the IPH's PM vertical-speed callout practice during visual transitions applies squarely here (IPH ch. 4)
Final descent: leave the circling altitude only from a position for a normal descent (S1); scan the runway and adjoining areas for traffic and obstructions (S7)
Touchdown: in the window (S8), on centerline, then drag and braking devices per type (S9)
Any call of "unstable," loss of airport visual contact, or overshoot needing more than 30° of bank converts the maneuver to the missed approach — announced, not debated (S10; VI.G S7).
Why is the go-around from short final after circling its own briefing item (AA.VI.H.R8)?
It's briefed separately because it's flown from the worst possible starting point — low, slow, configured, and pointed somewhere the published missed approach never contemplated — so the crew must climb toward the landing runway first, then intercept the missed approach course (IFH ch. 10), all while retracting configuration on schedule; the published procedure's protection assumed execution from the MAP at or above the MDA. Brief it with specifics before the approach: which way the turn goes from this runway, what altitude you're climbing to, and who's calling the configuration changes. The distractions/task-saturation risk (R6) peaks exactly here.
How does wake turbulence apply when you're circling to a different runway (AA.VI.H.R2)?
Unlike a straight-in, your pattern may cross the departure or arrival path of the runway you didn't land on — traffic taking off or going around from a parallel or crossing runway leaves wake through your circling area at circling altitude. Defenses:
Confirm the traffic picture with ATC before and during the circle (VI.G S2)
Use the MFD traffic display for the airplanes you can't see, while respecting its limitations
Keep your pattern inside the protected area rather than drifting wide into another runway's flow (S1)
Task I. Missed Approaches
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with performing a missed approach procedure.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What missed approaches must you fly on the ATP practical test (ACS Appendix 3)?
Two missed approaches, with:
At least one from a precision approach
One consisting of a complete published missed approach
In multiengine airplanes, a missed approach with one engine inoperative (or simulated) — the failure may come any time prior to the approach, during the approach, or during the transition to the missed approach attitude and configuration (ACS Appendix 3, Task I)
Descending below the MDA, or continuing below DA/DH without the runway environment in sight, is unsatisfactory — but a brief momentum dip below DA/DH when the miss is initiated at the DA is acceptable as long as the descent does not continue (ACS Appendix 3).
What are the tolerances during the missed approach?
Heading, course, or bearing ±5°, and altitude ±100 feet throughout the procedure (AA.VI.I.S7), with the appropriate airspeed/V-speed ±5 knots once the climb is established (S3). Note the delta from the instrument rating's ±10° on the same maneuver — at ATP standards the miss is flown to the same heading discipline as the final that preceded it.
Walk the missed approach sequence as the ACS grades it.
Promptly initiate and report to ATC (AA.VI.I.S1)
Power appropriate to the condition; pitch attitude for the desired performance (S2)
Retract flaps/drag devices and landing gear in the correct sequence at a safe altitude, establishing a positive rate of climb and the appropriate airspeed/V-speed ±5 knots (S3)
Crew coordination — procedures and checklists in a timely manner (S4)
Comply with the published or alternate missed approach (S5); advise if unable to meet a clearance, restriction, or climb gradient (S6)
Track it — MFD and navigation displays monitored (S8), CRM throughout (S9)
Re-engage the autopilot at the appropriate time, if installed (S10)
Then the plan: another approach, the alternate, a holding fix, or another clearance limit (S11)
You go missed a mile before the MAP. What track do you fly (AA.VI.I.S5)?
Unless ATC has issued climbout instructions, continue on the approach track to the MAP at or above the MDA or DA/DH before beginning any turn, then fly the published procedure (IFH ch. 10; AC 120-108 para 3.9). The published miss provides obstacle clearance only when conducted from or above the MAP, assuming a climb of 200 ft/NM or higher as published — begin it somewhere else, below MDA, or off a circling maneuver, and neither obstacle clearance nor traffic separation is assured (IPH ch. 4). Early climbs have their own trap: charted climb-altitude restrictions between the FAF and MAP can exist to keep you out of overlying protected airspace (IPH ch. 4).
What does the engine-inoperative missed approach add (ACS Appendix 3)?
Three things, and the margins get real:
Climb performance drops to the approach-climb capability of your type
The required climb gradient may now exceed what the airplane can do — exactly why S6 requires advising ATC or the evaluator if unable to comply with a clearance, restriction, or climb gradient
Configuration retraction sequencing (S3) becomes performance-critical rather than procedural
The failure may be introduced before or during the approach, or in the transition to the miss (ACS Appendix 3) — so brief the single-engine miss on every approach, not as a separate maneuver you hope isn't today's.
When must a missed approach be executed (91.175(e))?
Immediately, when either condition exists:
Operating below MDA, or upon arrival at the MAP — including a DA/DH where specified — and at any time until touchdown, the 91.175(c) requirements (position for a normal-maneuver TDZ landing, flight visibility, visual references) are not met
An identifiable part of the airport is not distinctly visible during a circling maneuver at or above MDA, unless caused only by normal banking (91.175(e))
A clearance for the approach includes clearance for the published miss unless ATC instructs otherwise (IPH ch. 4). And the go-around below DA or after the MAP — a balked landing — is still flown, but 91.175(e)'s procedure doesn't necessarily assure obstacle clearance or traffic separation from that geometry (IPH ch. 4).
What are the limitations of the FMS and autopilot in the missed approach (AA.VI.I.K2, S10)?
Three things to be able to state for your avionics:
How the missed approach sequences in the navigator — what arms it, what the go-around mode does to the flight director, and when lateral guidance switches from the final approach course to the missed approach legs
The autopilot's role — most types require hand-flying the initial rotation to the go-around attitude, with re-engagement only at an appropriate point once climbing and clean per the AFM (S10)
What happens if the go-around is initiated late or early relative to what the box expected
The specifics are type-dependent — AFM territory — but the graded behavior is universal: fly the airplane first, sequence the automation second, verify the track third (S8).
Why does the ACS mention standby instruments in the missed approach task (AA.VI.I.K1)?
Because the miss is flown at maximum workload, and if the reason for the miss was an instrument or display problem, you'll fly it partial-panel. K1 requires knowledge of missed approach procedures including reference to standby or backup instruments: where they are, what powers them, which nav source they can display, and how your crosscheck changes when the primary display is gone. Tie-in: one non-precision and one precision approach on the test are flown with backup/partial-panel instrumentation representing a realistic failure mode (ACS Appendix 3, Tasks D and E) — and either can end in a miss at the evaluator's discretion.
Deep Dive
The decision, then the plan
The ACS puts unusual weight on what happens after the climb-out: holding, diverting, or flying it again is a named risk element (AA.VI.I.R2), and requesting the next clearance is a graded skill (S11).
You're climbing out on the miss. How do you decide between another approach, holding, and the alternate (AA.VI.I.R2)?
Interrogate why you missed:
Visibility below minimums with no trend of improvement — a second approach to the same minimums is hope, not a plan; ask for holding with an EFC while you get weather, or divert
Unstable approach or configuration problem — a self-inflicted miss; another approach is reasonable once the cause is briefed and fixed
Deteriorating trend — fuel becomes the clock: under 121, the dispatch fuel assumed destination, most distant alternate, plus 45 minutes (121.639, domestic operations); burning holding fuel into the divert fuel converts options into commitments
State the decision as a crew, tell ATC what you want (S1, S11), and if a new climb gradient or restriction exceeds single-engine or weight-limited performance, say unable (S6). Fuel-state escalation — minimum fuel and emergency fuel — is developed under Task VI.J.
What's the crew flow in the first thirty seconds of a miss?
Fly your operator's script; the graded shape (S2, S3, S4, S9):
PF: announces "go around," sets go-around power, rotates to the go-around attitude, calls for the first configuration step
PM: verifies power set, calls positive rate; PF calls gear up; PM sequences flaps on the schedule, monitors airspeed floors, and makes the ATC report (S1)
Both: verify the lateral and vertical guidance are flying the missed approach — not the old final — before trusting them (S8)
Then the appropriate checklist, in a timely manner, once the flight path is stable (S4)
The classic busts: configuration retracted out of sequence or below a safe altitude (S3), and a turn begun before the MAP or before a charted altitude (S5).
How do you handle an alternate missed approach clearance (AA.VI.I.S5)?
The skill element requires complying with the published or alternate missed approach procedure. An alternate miss comes from ATC — climbout instructions issued with the approach clearance or during the miss — and it replaces the published procedure. Two disciplines: read it back and load or brief it before the FAF when it's issued early (a late FMS edit during the go-around is an automation-management risk, R5), and if radar contact or comms are lost after an ATC-issued climbout, know what you'd revert to. When ATC hasn't spoken, the published procedure is the contract (IPH ch. 4).
Task J. Holding Procedures
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with holding procedures.
References: 14 CFR part 91; AC 91-74; AIM; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-15, FAA-H-8083-16, FAA-H-8083-25; POH/AFM; Terminal Procedures Publications
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What are the maximum holding airspeeds, and what are the exceptions (AA.VI.J.K1)?
All aircraft (IFH ch. 10):
Up to 6,000 feet MSL — 200 KIAS
6,001–14,000 feet — 230 KIAS
14,001 feet and above — 265 KIAS
Exceptions:
Patterns from 6,001–14,000 feet may be restricted to 210 KIAS (charted icon)
Some patterns are restricted to 175 KIAS (icon — generally on IAPs for Category A/B aircraft)
USAF airfields: 310 KIAS
Navy airfields: 230 KIAS
A pilot unable to comply must notify ATC
That last exception is a real ATP answer: if your type's minimum clean or icing speed exceeds the limit, say so.
When do you slow down, and what's required crossing the fix (AA.VI.J.S3)?
Start the speed reduction when 3 minutes or less from the holding fix, and cross the fix initially at or below the maximum holding airspeed (IFH ch. 10) — which is precisely the graded skill: change to the appropriate holding speed for the aircraft and altitude so as to cross the fix at or below maximum holding airspeed (S3). The purpose is containment: the protected airspace was sized for the limit speed, and adjacent holding patterns can be close together (IFH ch. 10). In a jet this is an energy problem — brief the slow-down point on the arrival, because 3 minutes at descent speed is a lot of knots to lose.
What are the ATP holding tolerances, and what does the task add beyond flying the pattern?
Airspeed ±10 knots, altitude ±100 feet, headings ±10°, accurately tracking the selected course, radial, or bearing — the en-route standard, not the final-approach one (AA.VI.J.S7).
What the ATP task layers on top:
Correct navaid identification (S1)
An appropriate entry for standard, nonstandard, published, or unpublished patterns (S2)
Leg length and restriction compliance (S4)
ATC reporting (S5)
Wind correction to arrive over the fix as close as possible to a specified time (S6)
Automation use — autopilot, flight director, and navigation displays for the assigned hold (S8)
Updating fuel reserves against the EFC (S9)
Entries, timing, and wind-correction technique are unchanged from the instrument rating and are covered in the IFR guide (Task III.B); the ATP delta is the fuel math and the automation.
ATC assigns holding with an EFC 40 minutes out. What's the fuel exercise (AA.VI.J.K2, S9)?
Rebuild the fuel picture from four numbers:
Fuel on board
Fuel flow while holding (holding flow at your weight and altitude — not cruise flow)
Fuel required to the destination
Fuel to the alternate plus final reserve
The dispatch release under 121 already assumed destination + most distant alternate + 45 minutes at normal cruising consumption (121.639, the domestic-operations rule; the part 91 IFR floor is the same 45-minute reserve, 91.167) — holding fuel is what's left above that structure. The graded behaviors: update the calculation whenever the EFC changes (S9, R1) and know your bingo — the fuel at which you leave the hold for the alternate regardless of the EFC. Say the number out loud when you enter the hold.
When do you declare 'minimum fuel,' and what does it get you (AA.VI.J.K3)?
Advise ATC when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching destination, you cannot accept any undue delay. It is not an emergency and does not get you traffic priority — it's an advisory that an emergency is possible if any undue delay occurs, given on initial contact after your call sign ("Salt Lake Approach, United 621, minimum fuel"). If the remaining usable fuel requires traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declare an emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes (AIM 5-5-15). The ATP-grade distinction: minimum fuel protects you from undue delay; only the emergency declaration changes your sequence.
What scenarios should have you planning for holding before the clearance comes (AA.VI.J.R3)?
The ACS names deteriorating destination weather as the archetype; the IFH adds the system-level trigger — when ceiling and visibility fall to or below the highest circling minimums, ATC issues instructions to aircraft that want to hold awaiting improvement or proceed to another airport (IFH ch. 10).
Practical scenarios for the oral:
Weather trending toward minimums
Single-runway airports with a disabled-aircraft risk
Flow programs into the hub
Your own missed approach (holding is one of the three post-miss options — AA.VI.I.S11)
Each one should trigger the same brief: holding fix, expected EFC handling, holding fuel available, and the divert decision point.
What's different about holding in icing conditions (AA.VI.J.R5)?
The task's reference list includes AC 91-74 (aircraft in icing) for a reason: a hold is prolonged exposure at low speed in one block of altitude — if that block is in cloud at freezing temperatures, you're marinating.
The risk-management answers the evaluator wants:
Ice protection systems on per the AFM before entering the conditions
Awareness that holding speed limits and your type's minimum icing airspeed may conflict — the "unable to comply, notify ATC" clause (IFH ch. 10) is the escape
A request for a different altitude or a hold outside the conditions when accretion continues
Specific speeds and system procedures are type territory: AFM first.
How should the automation fly the hold (AA.VI.J.K4, S8)?
FMS holding is the norm in a transport airplane: the box computes the entry, commands the turns, and sequences the legs — flown coupled in LNAV with the autopilot on. The graded skill is supervision: verify the hold the FMS built matches the clearance — fix, inbound course/radial, turn direction, leg length or time — before it starts the entry, and monitor the depicted pattern against the raw data (S1, S8). Where FMS behavior can deviate from expectation (entry geometry, wind handling near protected-airspace limits), the IFR guide's Task III.B cards cover the failure modes; the ATP behavior is the same: automation flies, you audit.
Deep Dive
Fuel is the reason this task exists
The instrument rating graded whether you could fly a racetrack. The ATP task grades whether you know when to stop flying it — three of four knowledge elements and three of six risk elements are about fuel and the decision to divert.
What do you report to ATC around holding (AA.VI.J.S5)?
Comply with the reporting requirements (S5): acknowledge and record the EFC, report as instructed, and — the ATP layer — tell ATC about the constraint they can't see: your fuel.
The clearance itself tells you what ATC is tracking — fix, holding course, leg length if DME/RNAV is used, turn direction if left turns are required, and the EFC with any pertinent additional delay information — and ATC issues instructions when a delay will exceed 1 hour or a revised EFC is necessary (IFH ch. 10). The escalation ladder (advisory → minimum fuel → emergency) is the Quick Review card; the timing discipline is here: report the state before it forces the decision.
How does the hold connect to the comm-failure plan (91.185)?
The EFC is not trivia — it's your lost-comm departure time.
Fix with an approach: commence descent or approach as close as possible to the EFC, or absent one, the flight-planned ETA.
Fix without one: leave the limit at the EFC — or upon arriving over it if none was received — then proceed to an approach fix and begin descent as close as possible to the ETA (91.185(c)(3)).
Copy the EFC every time it's revised; in the quiet after a comm failure it's the only clock ATC and you still share.
What's the crew division of labor in the hold?
Entering: PM confirms the clearance readback and EFC; PF commands the speed reduction at the 3-minute point (IFH ch. 10); both verify the FMS hold against the clearance before the entry
Established: PF monitors the pattern and wind correction (S6); PM runs the fuel picture — holding flow, bingo time, next EFC — and gets destination weather trends
Deciding: the divert decision is briefed as a number ("at 5,200 pounds we're leaving for the alternate"), not a mood; when the number arrives, the request goes to ATC without renegotiation
That structure is the task's CRM content: automation flies the racetrack (S8), the crew flies the decision (K2, K3, R2).
Area VII. Emergency Operations
Task A. Emergency Procedures
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with emergency procedures.
References: 14 CFR part 91; AC 91-74; AIM; FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-23, FAA-H-8083-25; FSB Report (type specific); POH/AFM
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What does the evaluator actually test in Task VII.A?
Five elements, per the ACS (VII.A S1–S5):
S1: explain or describe an emergency procedure for a situation the evaluator hands you
S2: use proper procedures for a situation such as emergency descent, inflight fire and smoke, decompression, emergency evacuation, airframe icing, or anything else the AFM/POH calls out
S3: fly on standby, backup, or partial-panel instrumentation if the scenario calls for it
S4: coordinate with your crew and finish the checklist in a timely manner
S5: talk to ATC and the evaluator as the situation warrants
Note the ordering. The ACS asks for procedures first and checklists "in a timely manner" — not instantly. Memory items, then control, then the book.
When may the evaluator let you simulate rather than actually perform part of an emergency?
Whenever performing it for real would jeopardize safety. Appendix 2 of the ACS says plainly: "If performing aspects of a given maneuver, such as emergency procedures, would jeopardize safety, the evaluator will ask the applicant to simulate that portion of the maneuver" (FAA-S-ACS-11A, Appendix 2). That is why decompression is never demonstrated by actually dumping the cabin, and why fire drills are described rather than lit.
How does the ACS want you to handle checklists during an emergency (Appendix 2)?
Memory items first, then the checklist: the ACS anticipates that reading the actual checklist may be impractical or unsafe in some situations, so the evaluator assesses your performance of published or recommended immediate-action memory items, followed by your review of the appropriate checklist once conditions permit (FAA-S-ACS-11A, Appendix 2).
So the sequence an examiner wants to see is: fly the airplane, memory items, stabilize, then call for the checklist and run it deliberately. Reaching for a QRH before the airplane is under control is a failure of prioritization, not diligence.
What is your legal authority to deviate in an emergency, and what do you owe afterward?
91.3(b) — in an in-flight emergency requiring immediate action, the PIC may deviate from any rule of part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency. A written report goes to the Administrator upon request (91.3(c)).
121.557(a) — in an emergency requiring immediate decision and action, the PIC may take any action considered necessary, deviating from prescribed procedures, weather minimums, and the chapter, to the extent required in the interests of safety.
121.557(c) — you must keep ATC and dispatch fully informed of the progress of the flight, and the person who declared sends a written report through the certificate holder's operations manager to the Administrator. A PIC files within 10 days after returning to home base; a dispatcher within 10 days of the emergency.
The 121 report is not conditional on a request the way the 91.3 report is. That distinction gets asked.
Under 121 operations, who else shares emergency authority with you?
The aircraft dispatcher. Under 121.557(b), when an emergency arises in flight that requires immediate decision and action by the dispatcher and is known to them, the dispatcher must advise the PIC, ascertain the PIC's decision, and have that decision recorded. If the dispatcher cannot communicate with you, the dispatcher declares the emergency and takes whatever action is considered necessary (121.557(b)). Joint responsibility is the defining feature of domestic and flag operations — you are never the only person with a duty to act.
What situations require an emergency descent (VII.A K2)?
Any situation demanding an immediate and rapid descent — the AFH names an uncontrollable fire, a sudden loss of cabin pressurization, or any other comparable emergency (AFH ch. 18). The objective is to descend as soon and as rapidly as possible while not exceeding any structural limitation of the airplane (AFH ch. 18).
At transport-category weights and altitudes, add a trigger the AFM will drive: loss of both engines or a fuel emergency where you need to reach a glide-range airport. In every case the descent is a memory-item maneuver, and the target altitude comes from the terrain along your route, not from a generic number.
Walk through the emergency descent as the AFH describes it.
Per AFH ch. 18, and always subject to what the manufacturer publishes:
Configure for drag — power to idle (except where the manufacturer prohibits), propeller control to low pitch/high rpm if equipped, landing gear and flaps extended as recommended
Bank about 30 to 45° when initiating, to maintain positive load factors (G forces) on the airplane — that is the AFH's stated reason for the bank. Separately, the AFH has simulated emergency descents in training made in a turn to check for traffic below and to look for a possible emergency landing area, with a radio call announcing descent intentions as appropriate
Respect the speed limits — do not exceed VNE, VLE, or VFE as applicable; if the air is turbulent, honor VA as well
Descend at the maximum allowable airspeed consistent with the procedure used, for maximum drag and rate of descent
Begin recovery high enough to ensure a safe return to level flight or a precautionary landing
In practice the transport-category version is thrust levers to idle, speedbrakes, a turn off the airway, and a descent flown on the flight director to the AFM target — but the aerodynamic logic above is what the examiner wants explained.
Rapid decompression at cruise — what happens in the first fifteen seconds?
In order:
Mask on — within five seconds or less, and check for flow (AC 61-107, Table 2-6, Common Emergency Procedures for Hypoxia — the same response para 2-7 applies to decompression)
Breathe 100 percent oxygen
Establish crew communication and confirm the other pilot is on oxygen
Initiate the emergency descent to a safe altitude — preferably below 10,000 ft MSL
If symptoms persist, land as soon as possible (AC 61-107, para 2-7; the table's own wording is "LAND A.S.A.P.")
The five-second number is not folklore. 121.333(c)(2)(i) defines a quick-donning mask as one that can be placed on the face from its ready position, properly secured, sealed, and supplying oxygen upon demand, with one hand and within five seconds.
How much time of useful consciousness do you actually have after a rapid decompression?
Far less than the sea-level-ascent table suggests — a rapid decompression cuts your time of useful consciousness (TUC) by about 50 percent between 25,000 and 43,000 ft. AC 61-107, Figure 2-3 gives TUC both ways:
Altitude
TUC
TUC after rapid decompression
25,000 ft
3–5 min
1.5–2.5 min
30,000 ft
1–2 min
30 sec–1 min
35,000 ft
30 sec–1 min
15–30 sec
40,000 ft
15–20 sec
nominal
43,000 ft and above
9–12 sec
nominal
Above 43,000 ft you are down to the circulation time from lung to brain, roughly 9 to 12 seconds (AC 61-107, para 2-7). And the AC's own warning: TUC is not the onset of unconsciousness — impaired performance may be immediate.
Why is a slow decompression considered as dangerous as a rapid one?
Because nothing commands your attention. AC 61-107 carries the warning twice: "Slow decompression is as dangerous as or more dangerous than a rapid or explosive decompression." A rapid decompression announces itself with noise, fog, and temperature drop; a slow one may go unnoticed and the resulting hypoxia may be unrecognized by the pilot (AC 61-107, para 2-7).
That is the argument for treating the cabin altitude indication and its aural warning as primary instruments in cruise, and for donning oxygen on suspicion rather than on proof.
What are the causes of inflight fire or smoke you should be ready to name (VII.A K3)?
The AFH sorts them into three families (AFH ch. 18):
Engine compartment — a failure that lets a flammable substance (fuel, oil, hydraulic fluid) reach a hot surface; mechanical failure of the engine or an accessory, a defective induction or exhaust system, a broken line, or maintenance errors such as improperly fastened fittings
Electrical — the first indication is usually the distinct odor of burning insulation
Cabin — careless smoking, electrical system malfunctions, or heating system malfunctions
At transport-category level, add cargo compartment, lavatory, galley, and lithium-battery fires — 121.417(b)(3)(ii) requires training in fire inflight or on the surface and smoke control procedures, with emphasis on electrical equipment.
When does smoke drive you to depressurize or descend?
When intense smoke overwhelms the normal pressurization air system, either depressurize at altitude or execute an emergency descent — depressurizing requires oxygen for all occupants (AFH ch. 18). Be aware that in some airplanes, lowering the landing gear or wing flaps can aggravate a cabin smoke problem (AFH ch. 18) — worth knowing before you configure early "just in case."
Deep Dive
Declaring, and choosing where to put the airplane (VII.A K1)
The examiner is less interested in the word "mayday" than in whether you converted an abnormal into a plan with a destination attached.
What does 'nearest suitable airport' mean when an engine is shut down under part 121?
121.565(a): whenever an engine fails or is shut down to prevent possible damage, the PIC must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made.
The exception is narrow. On an airplane with three or more engines, if not more than one engine has failed or been shut down, the PIC may proceed to a selected airport after making a reasonable decision that doing so is as safe as landing at the nearest suitable airport, weighing (121.565(b)) the nature of the malfunction and possible mechanical difficulties, the altitude, weight and usable fuel at shutdown, weather en route and at possible landing points, air traffic congestion, the kind of terrain, and familiarity with the airport. Choosing anything other than the nearest suitable airport triggers a written report in duplicate to the director of operations, forwarded with comments to the responsible Flight Standards office within 10 days of your return to home base (121.565(d)).
You must also report each in-flight engine shutdown to the appropriate communication facility as soon as practicable and keep it fully informed (121.565(c)).
How do you talk your way through an emergency with ATC (VII.A S5)?
Structure the transmission so the controller can act on the first sentence:
Who and what — callsign, the nature of the emergency, souls and fuel when asked
What you want — vectors, a specific runway, a descent, a discrete frequency, equipment standing by
What you are doing right now — "descending to 10,000, turning left to 270"
Then keep them updated: 121.557(c) obliges you to keep the appropriate ATC facility and dispatch centers fully informed of the progress of the flight. In a crew airplane, the pilot monitoring owns the radio so the pilot flying owns the airplane — the ACS scores the coordination (S4), not the eloquence.
Multiple failures and the checklist you cannot find (VII.A R1, R2, R4)
Type-rating checkrides rarely give you a clean single failure. The risk elements exist because the scenario is designed to make you choose.
The scenario gives you two abnormals at once and no single checklist covers it. What now?
Work the hierarchy rather than the paper:
Fly the airplane first — the AFH's warning about engine failures at altitude applies to every emergency: airplanes have been lost "due to apparent fixation on the engine problem to the detriment of flying the airplane" (AFH ch. 13)
Handle the failure that is time-critical — fire, smoke, and decompression outrank everything because they have a clock; a hydraulic system loss does not
Run memory items for each, then the printed checklists in priority order, watching for steps that conflict (a checklist that wants a system you just isolated)
Say the conflict out loud to your crew and resolve it deliberately — the evaluator is assessing task allocation and decision-making, which is exactly what CRM is defined as in Appendix 2
When no checklist fits, revert to the AFM limitations and basic systems knowledge, and get the airplane on the ground
R1 is literally "selection of the procedures or checklists to follow in an emergency." Choosing well and saying why is the answer.
What are the crew coordination expectations during an emergency on the checkride?
Appendix 2 defines CRM as situational awareness, communication skills, teamwork, task allocation, and decision-making within a comprehensive framework of standard operating procedures (FAA-S-ACS-11A, Appendix 2). Practically:
Positive exchange of controls — the FAA's three-step process: "You have the flight controls," "I have the flight controls," "You have the flight controls," with a visual confirmation (Appendix 2)
One pilot flies, the other troubleshoots — and the assignment is stated, not assumed
The evaluator may occupy a required duty position and must perform the CRM functions you brief and request — so brief them (Appendix 2)
One caveat worth knowing: during steep turns, approach to stalls, and recovery from unusual attitudes, the evaluator will not assist, because you must demonstrate control without intervention from the pilot monitoring (Appendix 2).
How do you keep situational awareness — and avoid disorientation — while working an emergency (VII.A R4)?
R4 names distractions, task prioritization, loss of situational awareness, and disorientation, and this task's scenarios are built to produce all four. Fixation is documented: airplanes have been lost "due to apparent fixation on the engine problem to the detriment of flying the airplane" (AFH ch. 13). The countermeasure is the task allocation Appendix 2 defines as CRM — situational awareness is listed first among its components — with one pilot whose whole job stays the flight path, position, and terrain.
The disorientation half is physiological. A decompression means hypoxia, and impaired performance may be immediate (AC 61-107); smoke can obscure the panel; and losing the primary attitude reference in IMC (S3) is the classic spatial disorientation setup. Get on oxygen early, and trust the remaining instruments over body sensations.
The physical constraints on any emergency plan (VII.A R3)
Every emergency decision is bounded by four things the airplane cannot argue with. The examiner wants to hear them priced into the plan, not listed.
How do altitude, wind, terrain, and obstructions shape your options in an emergency (VII.A R3)?
They set the floor, the direction, and the clock. Work them in that order:
Altitude is time. High, you can troubleshoot, run checklists, and choose; low, you fly the airplane and take what is reachable. It is also the constraint on the emergency descent — the AFH has you begin recovery high enough to ensure a safe return to level flight or a precautionary landing (AFH ch. 18).
Terrain sets the descent target. The level-off altitude for a decompression is the higher of a breathable altitude and a safe one over the terrain along your route — grid MORA, MSA, or the OROCA, not a generic 10,000 ft. In mountainous terrain that may mean an off-airway escape route flown before the descent, which is exactly why the AFM's driftdown and escape procedures exist.
Wind biases every reachable option. A field or airport downwind is far closer in glide or driftdown terms than the same distance upwind, and the surface wind then sets your touchdown direction and groundspeed.
Obstructions constrain the last mile — towers, rising ground, and the missed approach you may not be able to fly with a degraded airplane.
Say these out loud as you work the problem. R3 is graded on whether the plan accounts for them, not on whether you name them.
Evacuation (VII.A K5)
When is an emergency evacuation necessary, and what drives the decision?
Evacuate when remaining on board is more dangerous than leaving — fire or smoke that cannot be controlled, structural damage, a fuel spill, a ditching, or any condition where the cabin environment is deteriorating. The regulatory backdrop is 121.417(c), and it splits into two different cycles.
Once, during initial training: each crewmember must perform an emergency evacuation drill, egressing the airplane or approved training device using at least one type of installed emergency evacuation slide (121.417(c)(1)(iii)) — a one-time requirement, not a recurrent one.
During initial training and once each 24 calendar months in recurrent training: crewmembers must operate each type of emergency exit in the normal and emergency modes, including the actions and forces required in the deployment of the evacuation slides (121.417(c)(2)(i)(A)), and must observe an emergency evacuation including the use of a slide (121.417(c)(2)(ii)(D)).
That split gets asked. The evacuation drill you perform is one-time; what comes back every 24 calendar months is exit operation and observation.
Related training obligations sit in the same section: 121.417(b) requires instruction in emergency assignments and coordination among crewmembers, in ditching and evacuation equipment, and in handling rapid decompression and inflight fire with smoke control; and 121.417(e) requires crewmembers serving above 25,000 feet to be taught respiration, hypoxia, duration of consciousness without supplemental oxygen at altitude, gas expansion, gas bubble formation, and the phenomena of decompression.
For the oral, describe the decision as a crew product: stop the airplane, set the parking brake, shut down the engines, and give an unambiguous evacuation command on the PA — flight attendants are trained not to act on ambiguity. Consider wind and fire location before choosing exits, and account for everyone once outside.
Icing beyond the airplane's capability (VII.A K6)
What do you do when icing conditions exceed the capability of the aircraft?
Leave the conditions — the equipment exists to facilitate escape, not endurance. The AFH is blunt: anti-ice and deice equipment only eliminates ice from the protected surfaces, and significant accumulations may form on unprotected areas even with proper use of the systems (AFH ch. 13). Concretely:
Change altitude or heading to exit the icing layer; a climb, a descent to above-freezing air, or a turn back to known-clear air are all legitimate — declare and ask
Add an airspeed margin and use a minimum flap setting on approach, because flap extension increases the AOA of the horizontal stabilizer, and avoid sudden or large configuration and airspeed changes (AFH ch. 13)
Do not trust the stall warning — pilots should not rely upon stall warning devices for adequate warning with ice accumulations (AFH ch. 13)
Consider disconnecting the autopilot — continuous autopilot use masks the trim and handling changes that reveal ice accumulation, and it disconnects suddenly at its design limits, handing you an airplane with unsatisfactory handling characteristics (AFH ch. 13)
And the limitation that ends the argument: no multiengine airplane is approved for flight into severe icing conditions, and none are intended for indefinite flight in continuous icing (AFH ch. 13).
Flying on what is left of the panel (VII.A S3)
The scenario takes your primary flight display. What changes at ATP standards?
The instrument scan changes; the tolerances do not. Fly by reference to standby flight instruments, backup instrumentation, or partial panel as appropriate to the situation (VII.A S3), while still meeting the numeric standards of whatever task you are flying — assume your instrument-rating partial-panel technique is intact. What the ATP adds is the crew dimension:
Announce the failure and the degraded state
Transfer control if the standby instruments are better positioned in front of the other seat
Ask ATC for a longer final or a lower workload routing
Configure the autopilot and flight director to a mode you can still verify
A flight director driven by a failed source is worse than no flight director.
Task B. Powerplant Failure During Takeoff
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with powerplant failure during takeoff.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What are the ACS tolerances for a powerplant failure during takeoff?
Two tolerances, both tighter than anything I flew for the commercial multi:
After establishing a climb, maintain the desired airspeed ±5 knots, using the flight controls in the proper combination as recommended by the manufacturer, or as required, to maintain best performance, and trim as required (VII.B S4, AMEL/AMES)
Maintain the appropriate heading ±5° when the powerplant failure occurs (VII.B S5, AMEL/AMES)
Both apply only to the multiengine ratings. There is no altitude tolerance in this task — the standard is climb performance, not a number, and the airspeed I hold is the one the AFM schedules for the configuration I am in.
Where in the takeoff will the evaluator introduce the failure?
Appendix 3 of the ACS is specific. In a multiengine airplane certificated with V1, VR, or V2 speeds, a simulated failure of the most critical powerplant should occur:
After V1 and prior to V2, if appropriate under the prevailing conditions in the opinion of the evaluator; or
As close as possible after V1 when V1 and V2, or V1 and VR, are identical
In an airplane certificated without V1, VR, or V2 speeds, the simulated failure should occur after reaching a minimum of VSSE, and if accomplished in the aircraft the evaluator should not introduce it lower than 400 feet AGL. Tests in an FSTD have no minimum altitude for introducing the failure (FAA-S-ACS-11A, Appendix 3, Area VII Task B) — though a practical test in an FSTD can only be accomplished as part of an approved curriculum or training program, and any limitations on powerplant failure will be noted there (Appendix 2).
Appendix 2 adds the general rule for the airplane: at altitudes lower than 3,000 feet AGL, powerplant failure should be simulated as recommended by the manufacturer — for propeller-driven airplanes, by reducing throttle to idle and then establishing zero thrust. The evaluator may also consult the airplane's FSB report for additional safety considerations.
Define V1, and give the expanded definition the FAA uses.
The short form: V1 is critical engine failure speed, or takeoff decision speed — the speed at which the pilot is to continue the takeoff in the event of an engine failure or other serious emergency. Below V1 it is considered safer to stop within the accelerate-stop distance. It is also the minimum speed, following failure of the critical engine at VEF, at which the pilot can continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance (AFH ch. 16).
The expanded definition from AC 120-62, quoted in AFH ch. 16, is what airline training uses. V1 represents:
The maximum speed by which a rejected takeoff assures a safe stop within the remaining runway, or runway and stopway
The minimum speed which assures the takeoff can be safely completed within the remaining runway, or runway and clearway, after failure of the most critical engine at the designated speed
The single speed which permits a successful stop or continued takeoff when operating at the minimum allowable field length for a particular weight
My airplane's actual V1 comes from the AFM and the day's conditions — never from memory or from another type.
What are VEF, VR, VLOF, and V2, and how do they relate?
From AFH ch. 16:
VEF — the speed used during certification at which the critical engine is assumed to fail. V1 follows VEF by the recognition interval.
VR — rotation speed, the speed at which rotation to takeoff attitude is initiated. It cannot be less than V1 or less than 1.05 × VMC. On a single-engine takeoff it also allows for acceleration to V2 at the 35-foot height at the end of the runway.
VLOF — lift-off speed, the speed at which the airplane first becomes airborne; an engineering term used in certification, which the pilot considers if the AFM lists it.
V2 — takeoff safety speed, a referenced airspeed obtained after lift-off at which the required one-engine-inoperative climb performance can be achieved.
The chain in one sentence: fail at VEF, decide by V1, rotate at VR, leave the ground at VLOF, and be at V2 by 35 feet.
What is the difference between accelerate-stop and accelerate-go distance?
Both start the same way — accelerate to V1 with all engines at takeoff power and experience an engine failure at V1 (AFH glossary):
Accelerate-stop distance — the distance to then abort the takeoff and bring the airplane to a stop using braking action only. Thrust reversing is not considered.
Accelerate-go distance — the distance to continue the takeoff on the remaining engine(s), including the distance required to climb to 35 feet, by which time V2 must be attained.
That reversers are excluded from the certified accelerate-stop number is the point examiners like to draw out: reverse thrust is margin I may not get, not performance I may plan on.
Why is a decision made exactly at V1 already too late?
Because of human reaction time. AFH ch. 16 quantifies it: delaying the RTO maneuver by just one second beyond V1 increases the speed 4 to 6 knots on average, and crews require 3 to 7 seconds to identify an impending RTO and execute the maneuver. If braking has not begun by V1, the decision to continue is made by default.
The practical consequence is that the go/no-go decision must be made before V1 so the stop can be initiated at V1. That gap is exactly why the FAA expanded the V1 definition and introduced minimum, maximum, and reduced V1.
What is a reduced V1 and why would an operator use one?
A reduced V1 is a V1 less than maximum V1 or the normal V1, but more than minimum V1, selected to reduce the RTO stopping distance required (AFH ch. 16). The main purpose is to properly adjust the RTO stopping distance in light of the degraded stopping capability associated with wet or contaminated runways, while adding approximately 2 seconds of recognition time for the crew (AFH ch. 16).
The trade is real: a lower V1 buys stopping margin and costs go margin, so it is only available where the accelerate-go case still closes.
Explain the low-speed and high-speed regime concept.
Most manufacturers recommend operators identify a low-speed regime (e.g., 80 knots and below) and a high-speed regime (e.g., 100 knots and above) of the takeoff run (AFH ch. 16):
In the low-speed regime, reject for any malfunction or abnormality — actual or suspected
In the high-speed regime, reject only for catastrophic malfunctions or life-threatening situations, weighing the threat against the risk of overrunning the runway
SOPs include a speed callout at the transition between regimes. That callout serves several purposes at once: it flags the impending critical decision window, gives a last chance to cross-check airspeed and confirm takeoff thrust is set, and acts as an incapacitation check through the challenge-and-response ritual (AFH ch. 16).
You reject the takeoff. What is the correct technique?
Brakes first, and simultaneously. AFH ch. 16 is emphatic that the instinctive error is to use normal after-landing braking:
Apply maximum braking immediately while simultaneously retarding the throttles
Spoiler extension and thrust reverser deployment follow in short sequence
Avoid differential braking for directional control if possible — it diminishes braking effectiveness
Brakes provide the most effective stopping force; delaying the primary deceleration force during an RTO, when every second counts, increases stopping distance. And treat the whole event as what it is: "a rejected takeoff should be perceived as an emergency" (AFH ch. 16).
You continue after V1. What is the flow to V2 and beyond?
Fly the profile, and let the schedule — not instinct — drive configuration:
Maintain directional control and keep the airplane on centerline; rudder stops the yaw
Rotate at VR at the normal rate — approximately 2.5° to 3° per second to a takeoff pitch attitude normally between 10° and 15° nose up (AFH ch. 16)
Achieve and hold the engine-out climb speed the AFM schedules, ±5 knots (VII.B S4)
Gear up after a positive rate of climb is established and confirmed; note the VSI and altimeter may not show a positive climb until 35 to 50 feet due to ground effect (AFH ch. 16)
Do not retract flaps until obstruction clearance altitude or 400 feet AGL has been passed (AFH ch. 16)
Then run the memory items and the checklist, and only then think about a return
Every reference speed for my airplane — V1, VR, V2, the flap retraction schedule — is type-specific. I take them from the AFM and the FSB report, and recompute them for the day's weight, runway, gradient, temperature, pressure, wind, icing, and runway condition (AFH ch. 16).
What if the failure happens after airborne but climb performance will not support continuing?
Land. The ACS says that if a powerplant failure — simulated, if in the airplane — occurs after becoming airborne and before reaching an altitude where a safe turn can be made (ASEL, ASES), or the performance capabilities and operating limitations of the airplane will not allow the climb to continue (AMEL, AMES), the applicant should establish a power-off descent approximately straight ahead (VII.B S2; Appendix 3).
The AFH backs the reasoning with accident data: there is a very high success rate for engine-inoperative landings when the airplane is landed under control, and a very high fatality rate in stall-spin accidents when the pilot attempts flight beyond the performance capability of the airplane (AFH ch. 13). "Remaining airborne and bleeding off airspeed in a futile attempt to maintain altitude is almost invariably fatal."
What must a takeoff briefing cover for the engine failure case (VII.B R2)?
The ACS makes briefing the plan its own risk element in a crew environment (VII.B R2). A briefing that satisfies it names, before the airplane moves:
The speeds — V1, VR, V2 and who calls them
The stop case — what to reject for below and above the low/high-speed transition, and who does what
The go case — the target speed and pitch, the gear and flap schedule, and the initial altitude
The path — runway heading or an engine-out procedure, terrain and obstacles, and the airport to return to
The runway — length, surface condition, and any land and hold short operation in effect (R1)
Contingencies — takeoff warning inhibit systems, wake turbulence behind a preceding heavy, and density altitude
AFH ch. 13 frames it the same way: "An emergency contingency plan and safety brief should be clearly understood well before the takeoff roll commences."
Behind the brief sits the data. Takeoff data — V1/VR and V2, power settings, and required field length — is computed prior to each takeoff from weight, runway length, gradient, temperature, pressure, wind, icing conditions, and runway condition, and recorded on a takeoff data card for any airplane without an FMS. Both pilots should review the data entered in the FMS, or compute it separately and cross-check. If plans change while taxiing, recalculate (AFH ch. 16).
Deep Dive
Control, configuration, climb, checklist
The AFH's four Cs are the skeleton of every engine-out-after-takeoff procedure, jet or propeller. The examiner is watching the order.
What does 'control' mean in the first seconds of an engine failure after takeoff?
Stopping the yaw, with rudder, immediately. AFH ch. 13: "Maintaining directional control with prompt and often aggressive rudder application and STOPPING THE YAW is critical to the safety of flight." Then:
Ensure airspeed stays above VMC. If the yaw cannot be controlled with full rudder applied, reducing thrust on the operative engine is the only alternative
Do not lead with aileron — attempting to correct the roll with aileron without first applying rudder increases drag and adverse yaw and further degrades directional control
Then a slight bank toward the operative engine — at least 5° and a maximum of 10° initially to stop the yaw and maintain directional control, held only momentarily, just long enough to establish or ensure directional control
Trim to lower the control forces
Note the pitch consequence in propeller airplanes: the attitude for the engine-out climb speed is lower than the one for the all-engine best rate of climb (AFH ch. 13).
Once directional control is established and the airplane is configured for climb, reduce the bank to that producing best climb performance — without specific guidance for zero sideslip, AFH ch. 13 suggests a bank of 2° with one-third to one-half ball deflection toward the operative engine. The initial 5-to-10° is momentary precisely because climb performance suffers when bank angles exceed approximately 2 or 3°.
Describe the identify-verify-feather sequence.
From AFH ch. 13:
Identify — determine which engine failed primarily through the control inputs required to maintain straight flight, not the engine gauges. Confirmation on the gauges may or may not be possible depending on the failure mode.
Verify — retard the throttle of the engine thought to have failed. No change in performance verifies correct identification.
Feather — bring the corresponding propeller control fully aft.
Most AFM memory items sequence it as: assume the engine-out climb speed, set takeoff power, retract flaps and landing gear (on some airplanes gear before flaps), then identify, verify, and feather. Then, and only then, review the printed copy as time permits and run the securing failed engine checklist. Unless I suspect a fire, "the remaining items should be accomplished deliberately and without undue haste. Airplane control should never be sacrificed to execute the remaining checklists" (AFH ch. 13).
When may you turn back toward the airport?
Not before I have altitude to spend. AFH ch. 13 directs that because turning flight reduces climb performance, the climb should be made straight ahead or with shallow turns to avoid obstacles to an altitude of at least 400 feet AGL before attempting a return to the airport.
In a transport-category operation the answer is usually more constrained still: I fly the published or company engine-out departure procedure to the specified altitude, because the obstacle analysis behind my takeoff weight assumed that exact path. Deviating from it invalidates the numbers that let me take off at that weight.
The three low-altitude scenarios (VII.B R5, R7)
AFH ch. 13 categorizes complete failure of one engine shortly after takeoff into three cases. Knowing which one you are in is the decision.
Engine fails before the gear is selected up — what do you do?
Land straight ahead. AFH ch. 13: keep the nose as straight as possible, close both throttles, adjust pitch attitude to maintain adequate airspeed, and descend to the runway. Concentrate on a normal landing and do not force the aircraft on the ground. Land on the remaining runway or overrun.
The handbook is candid that there are "really no other practical options" — the chances of maintaining directional control while retracting flaps, retracting the gear, feathering the propeller, and accelerating are minimal. Depending on how quickly I react to the sudden yaw, the airplane may run off the side of the runway by the time action is taken. And on airplanes with a single engine-driven hydraulic pump, failure of that engine means the only way to raise the gear is to windmill the engine or use a hand pump — "not a viable alternative during takeoff."
Gear is up but single-engine climb performance is inadequate. What are the options?
A landing needs to be accomplished on whatever essentially lies ahead (AFH ch. 13). There is also the option of continuing ahead in a descent at the engine-out best rate of climb speed with the remaining engine producing power — as long as I am not tempted to remain airborne beyond the airplane's performance capability.
"The greatest hazard in a single-engine takeoff is attempting to fly when it is not within the performance capability of the airplane to do so. An accident is inevitable" (AFH ch. 13). Landing under control is paramount.
Planning the takeoff so the failure is boring (VII.B K2, R1)
What operational factors change the engine-failure plan before you ever release brakes?
VII.B K2 lists them, and each has a consequence:
Runway length and surface condition — drive V1 selection and whether the accelerate-stop case closes; a wet or contaminated runway may call for a reduced V1 (AFH ch. 16)
Density altitude and environmental conditions — reduce both thrust available and climb gradient, which can move the scenario from "adequate climb performance" to "inadequate"
Obstructions — set the engine-out departure path and the altitude at which flaps may come up
Takeoff warning systems, including inhibit logic — some manufacturers inhibit aural or visual warnings of non-critical equipment beyond a preset speed, specifically to prevent an overreaction and a risky high-speed RTO (AFH ch. 16). Know what the airplane will and will not indicate after that speed.
Wake turbulence — a rolling upset with an engine out is not survivable at low altitude; spacing is part of the plan
Sideslip, bank angle, and rudder input — the certified climb performance assumes the AFM's engine-out technique, not an improvised one
R1 folds in one more: land and hold short operations, which shorten the runway available for a stop.
Distraction and disorientation in the failure sequence (VII.B R8)
How do distractions and loss of situational awareness figure into an engine failure on takeoff (VII.B R8)?
The failure compresses decisions into seconds at low altitude — exactly where fixation kills. Airplanes have been lost "due to apparent fixation on the engine problem to the detriment of flying the airplane," and airplane control is never sacrificed to execute the remaining checklists (AFH ch. 13). Fly first, secure second.
Structure defends against the rest. The takeoff brief (R2) converts the failure into a pre-made plan rather than a low-altitude discussion; the regime speed callout doubles as an incapacitation check (AFH ch. 16); and the identify-verify-feather discipline exists because a rushed, disoriented crew is what shuts down the wrong engine. If situational awareness degrades — position, altitude, terrain, where the airport went — say so, and use ATC to rebuild the picture before continuing the drill.
Common execution errors
What are the classic errors on the V1 cut, and how do you avoid them?
Late rotation. In training it is common to overshoot VR and then V2 because the pilot monitoring calls for rotation at or just past VR and the pilot flying visually verifies before rotating. A delayed rotation can be critical when runway length or obstacle clearance is limited, and on some airplanes the rapidly increasing airspeed causes the achieved flightpath to fall below the engine-out scheduled flightpath (AFH ch. 16). Rotate on the call.
Rotating too soon or too fast. Rotation to the proper takeoff attitude too soon may extend the takeoff roll or cause an early lift-off, resulting in a lower rate of climb and a divergence from the predicted flightpath (AFH ch. 16).
Chasing altitude instead of speed. The tolerance is airspeed ±5 knots (VII.B S4); the airplane will climb at whatever rate it has.
Retracting flaps early to reduce drag — the schedule exists because obstacle clearance was computed with them where they are (AFH ch. 16).
Heading drift. ±5° (VII.B S5) is a rudder-and-trim discipline, not a heading-bug problem.
Task C. Powerplant Failure (Simulated) (ASEL, ASES)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with powerplant failure and associated emergency approach and landing procedures.
References: FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-25; POH/AFM · Applies to: ASEL, ASES
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
Who actually flies Task VII.C, and what is the ATP-level frame?
Only ASEL and ASES applicants — this task does not apply to the multiengine ratings, which get Tasks VII.D through VII.F instead. In practice that means an ATP applicant in a single-engine turbine or high-performance piston, often flying single-pilot part 135 cargo or air-taxi work.
Nothing about the aerodynamics changed since your commercial ride. What the evaluator is looking for at ATP standards is the discipline layer: recognition without hesitation, memory items before troubleshooting, a landing area chosen and committed to, checklists completed "in a timely manner and as recommended by the manufacturer or operator" (VII.C S8), and communication with ATC that is useful rather than narrative (VII.C S9).
What is the airspeed tolerance for a simulated powerplant failure in a single-engine airplane?
±5 knots of the recommended best glide airspeed, established and maintained throughout (VII.C S4). That is tighter than the commercial standard, and it is the only numeric tolerance in the task — everything else is judged on outcome: positive control throughout (S3), a suitable landing area for the conditions (S6), and a proper flight path to it (S7).
Best glide speed itself is type-specific. Take it from the POH/AFM for your weight — it decreases with weight, and the published figure is normally at gross.
What limits the evaluator's ability to give you a simulated powerplant failure?
Safety of flight, explicitly: "No simulated powerplant failure will be given by the evaluator in an airplane when an actual touchdown cannot be safely completed, should it become necessary" (FAA-S-ACS-11A, Appendix 3, Area VII Task C). Appendix 2 repeats the principle for single-engine airplanes generally: the evaluator will not request a simulated powerplant failure unless it is possible to safely complete a landing.
So expect the failure within gliding range of a runway or a genuinely usable surface, and expect to be asked what you would have done had it happened somewhere else.
Best glide versus minimum sink — what is the difference and when does each matter (VII.C K2)?
Best glide speed: the highest lift-to-drag ratio, giving the greatest distance for altitude lost — use it when you need to reach something. Minimum sink speed: slower, giving the greatest time aloft for altitude lost — use it when you are already over your landing area and need time to troubleshoot, restart, run checklists, or brief passengers.
Both decrease with decreasing weight. Choosing the wrong one is a classic oral trap: gliding at minimum sink toward a field five miles away wastes the altitude you needed to get there.
How does wind change the glide (VII.C K2c)?
Wind does not change your airspeed target much, but it changes where the airplane can go. With a headwind, ground distance covered shrinks and a slightly higher airspeed than best glide recovers some of it; with a tailwind, ground distance grows and a slightly slower speed extends it further. Follow the AFM where it publishes adjusted speeds.
The bigger operational point is the one that decides survival: a landing area downwind of you is much closer in glide terms than the same distance upwind, and your gliding footprint is an ellipse, not a circle. Bias your selection accordingly, and remember the surface wind also sets your touchdown direction and groundspeed once you get there.
What are the immediate action items for a forced landing (VII.C K1)?
The specific memory items come from your AFM/POH and your operator's procedures, but the structure is universal:
Pitch for best glide immediately — trading altitude for a speed you were going to need anyway is the one irreversible mistake
Turn toward the best landing area you have already been keeping in mind
Run the memory items — typically fuel selector, boost pump, mixture, ignition/magnetos, alternate air — because the most common causes are recoverable
If altitude permits, determine the cause and whether a restart is viable (VII.C S2)
Then the checklist, then the emergency descent/secure and passenger brief, then the radio
Time is the resource you are spending. High and early, you can troubleshoot; low, you fly the airplane to the ground and nothing else.
What ATC services are available to an aircraft in distress (VII.C K6)?
Declare and use them. On 121.5 MHz or your current frequency, squawking 7700, ATC can provide:
Vectors to the nearest suitable airport
Terrain and obstruction information
The nearest weather
A discrete frequency so you are not competing with other traffic
Alerting of crash, fire, and rescue services
Radar can vector you to a field you cannot see and confirm your position for search and rescue if you do not make it there.
Ask for what you need in the first transmission, then keep ATC informed as the situation develops — in the single-pilot 135 world this task frames, there is no dispatcher, so a running picture to the controller is the whole information chain.
What should you know about the ELT and other locating devices (VII.C K5)?
An emergency locator transmitter is designed to activate automatically on impact and transmit a distress signal so search and rescue can find you. ELTs operate on 121.5 MHz, 243.0 MHz, or 406 MHz (AIM 6-2-5):
121.5/243.0 MHz: analog — since Cospas-Sarsat stopped satellite monitoring of these frequencies on February 1, 2009, the signal is only heard if ATC or an overflying aircraft happens to be listening.
406 MHz: digital, satellite-detected within minutes, coded with the aircraft's data, and carries a low-power 121.5 MHz homing transmitter for the final search phase; it must be registered with NOAA, since the registration ties the signal to your aircraft and the people who should be called (91.207 sets the carriage, inspection, and battery-replacement rules).
If the landing is survivable and you are on the ground:
Activate the ELT manually if it did not fire, leave it on, and stay with the airplane.
Use the resources that reach someone immediately — tell ATC on your working frequency or on the emergency frequency 121.5 MHz (PHAK ch. 16), and squawk 7700.
Supplement afterward with what you carry — a personal locator beacon, a satellite messenger, or a phone, which works far better from a hilltop than from a valley floor.
A powerplant failure in IMC (VII.C R7) — what changes?
Everything about site selection. You cannot see what you are gliding toward, so the resources substitute for the windscreen:
Nearest-airport function on the GPS/FMS, cross-checked against the moving-map terrain page
ATC for vectors, the nearest field, and terrain clearance — declare immediately, because you are trading altitude for information and altitude is finite
Terrain awareness display to bias the glide toward lower ground and away from rising terrain
The published approach, if the glide will support one; otherwise a straight glide toward the lowest terrain and the best chance of breaking out
Set the airplane up so that whatever you find when you break out, you are already slow, configured to the AFM's forced-landing recommendation, and pointed at the flattest ground available. Be honest with the examiner that this is the scenario with the worst outcomes, and that the mitigation is strategic — route selection, altitude, and fuel planning — long before the engine quits.
Deep Dive
Energy management and a stabilized arrival (VII.C K4)
A forced landing is an energy problem with one deposit and no further income. Altitude and airspeed are the only currency you have, and every decision spends some of it.
What does a stabilized approach mean when the engine is out, and how do you manage energy to get one (VII.C K4)?
It means arriving at the flare with the energy you planned, not the energy that happened. Your total energy is fixed at the moment of failure — altitude plus the excess airspeed you can trade — and it only decreases. So manage it in this order:
Convert once, early. Excess airspeed can be converted into distance or altitude (AFH ch. 18); the pitch change to best glide is the first and most important trade you make.
Protect the glide ratio. Best glide is L/DMAX; any speed above or below it increases drag and lessens the glide ratio (AFH ch. 3). Drag-producing items — flaps, gear, cowl flaps — steepen the path and shorten the distance, so they are spent deliberately, not scheduled.
Arrive with a surplus you can dump, not a deficit you must stretch. Aim to reach the key position high, then use a slip, S-turns, or flap extension to give energy away. Intentional slips dissipate altitude without increasing airspeed and are specifically useful in forced landings and where obstacles must be cleared into a confined area (AFH ch. 9).
Stabilize by short final — on the aim point, at the AFM's speed, in the configuration you have chosen, wings level. From there the only remaining variable should be the flare.
The failure mode this prevents is the stretched glide. Once you are low and slow, no technique adds energy back.
How do atmospheric conditions affect the emergency approach and landing (VII.C K3)?
They change the numbers, not the technique:
Density altitude — on a hot, high day your best glide indicated airspeed is unchanged, but true airspeed and therefore groundspeed and sink rate are higher. The glide ratio through the air holds; you simply cover the same air distance faster and touch down faster, which matters because doubling groundspeed quadruples the destructive energy (AFH ch. 18).
Temperature and pressure also drive the same TAS effect, and a warm day means a longer ground slide once you are down.
Turbulence forces a slightly higher speed for control margin and makes precise speed-holding harder — costly when the tolerance is ±5 knots (S4).
Precipitation and icing add drag and weight and can degrade the glide substantially; ice on the airframe with no engine heat available is a compounding problem.
Wind and its gradient — the shear as you descend into the surface layer typically reduces headwind near the ground, which shows up as a sinking, decaying-airspeed final if you did not plan a margin.
Then remember weight: variations in weight do not affect the glide angle provided you fly the proper airspeed — a heavier airplane needs a higher airspeed for the same glide ratio and gets there sooner (AFH ch. 3).
Committing to a field, and changing your mind (VII.C R2)
When should you change the landing area you already chose, and when is that the wrong instinct (VII.C R2)?
Change your mind at most once, and only for an option that is obviously better. If the emergency starts at a considerable height, be concerned first with selecting the desired general area rather than a specific spot, because terrain appearances from altitude can be very misleading and considerable altitude may be lost before the best spot is pinpointed. Do not hesitate to discard the original plan for one that is obviously better — but as a general rule, do not change your mind more than once (AFH ch. 18).
The reason is the closing line of that passage: a well-executed crash landing in poor terrain can be less hazardous than an uncontrolled touchdown on an established field (AFH ch. 18). Indecision costs altitude, and altitude is the thing you are short of. Commit, fly the airplane to the field, and spend your remaining attention on attitude and sink rate rather than on second-guessing the choice.
For the oral, state the decision gate out loud: "I will reassess once, by [altitude]; below that I am committed."
Configuring, and the risks close to the ground (VII.C R3, R4, R5, S5)
How do you configure the airplane for a forced landing (VII.C R4, S5)?
S5 says it plainly: configure in accordance with the POH/AFM and existing conditions — the manufacturer first, the terrain second. The AFH's guidance (ch. 18):
Flaps improve maneuverability at slow speed and lower the stalling speed, so their use on final approach is recommended when time and circumstances permit. But the added drag and reduced gliding distance mean premature use of flaps may jeopardize an otherwise sound plan. Extend them when the field is made, not before.
Landing gear has no hard and fast rule. In rugged terrain, trees, or a high sink rate, an extended gear protects the cabin; against that, weigh a collapsing gear rupturing a fuel tank. On level but soft terrain or a plowed field with ample stopping distance, gear up may produce less damage. Follow the AFM/POH.
Electrical and fuel — deactivating the electrical system before touchdown reduces post-crash fire risk, but do not turn off the battery master until you no longer need electrical power for vital systems. It is generally better to switch the engine and fuel off just before touchdown.
And the priority that overrides all of it: positive airplane control during the final part of the approach has priority over all other considerations, including configuration and checklist tasks (AFH ch. 18).
Why is low altitude maneuvering — stall, spin, CFIT — the risk that actually kills in a forced landing (VII.C R5)?
Because the accident record says so, and the mechanism is always the same. The AFH's summary of engine-inoperative landings: there is a very high success rate when the airplane is landed under control, against a very high fatality rate in stall-spin accidents when the pilot attempts flight beyond the performance capability of the airplane (AFH ch. 13).
The specific errors the AFH names (ch. 18) are worth quoting to the examiner:
Failure to lower the nose to maintain flying speed, and delay in selecting a landing area — both products of reluctance to accept the emergency
Making a 180° turn back to the runway when available altitude is insufficient
Stretching the glide without regard for minimum control speed to reach a more appealing field
Then the touchdown itself: loss of initiative over attitude and sink rate is the most critical and often most inexcusable error in an emergency landing. An excessive nose-low attitude risks sticking the nose in; steep bank angles just before touchdown increase the stalling speed and the likelihood of a wingtip strike; and a flat touchdown at a sink rate well in excess of 500 fpm on a hard surface can injure occupants without destroying the cabin (AFH ch. 18).
CFIT is the same error with terrain instead of the ground: fixating on the field and descending into what is between you and it.
What collision hazards apply during a forced landing (VII.C R3)?
Your flightpath is about to become unpredictable to everyone else, and your eyes are inside the cockpit running memory items. Both halves matter:
Airborne traffic: you may cross altitudes without clearance, glide through a pattern from an unusual direction, or arrive at an airport on a straight-in nobody expects. Declare, squawk 7700, and tell ATC or the CTAF your position and intention in plain language; ask for traffic to be kept clear rather than assuming the emergency did it for you.
Ground obstacles on the chosen field: the ones the AFH warns are hardest to see — most highways and even rural dirt roads are paralleled by power or telephone lines, and only a sharp lookout for the supporting poles gives timely warning. Manmade obstacles beside a road may not be visible until the final portion of the approach (AFH ch. 18).
The mitigation that pays best is the geometry: it is sometimes better to plan the approach over an unobstructed area regardless of wind direction, because a collision with obstacles at the end of a ground slide is far less hazardous than striking one at flying speed before the touchdown point (AFH ch. 18).
Task D. Inflight Powerplant(s) Failure and Restart (AMEL, AMES)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with inflight powerplant failure and restart procedures, if applicable, in a multiengine airplane.
References: FAA-H-8083-2, FAA-H-8083-3, FAA-H-8083-25; POH/AFM · Applies to: AMEL, AMES
Quick Review
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What are the ACS tolerances for the inflight failure and restart task?
Airspeed: ±10 knots
Altitude: ±100 feet
Headings: ±10°
These apply as specified by the evaluator and within the airplane's capability (VII.D S6).
That last clause matters. If the airplane cannot hold altitude on the remaining engine at your weight and altitude, the standard becomes the best performance available — you are expected to fly the drift-down correctly, not to conjure climb performance that does not exist. Say so out loud when it applies; the ACS anticipates it.
Where and how will the evaluator set up an inflight powerplant failure and restart?
Under altitude protection. Appendix 2 requires that Tasks involving powerplant shutdown or propeller feathering be performed only under conditions and at a position and altitude where it is possible to make a safe landing on an established airport if there is difficulty restarting or unfeathering. The evaluator must select an entry altitude that allows the powerplant failure Tasks to be completed no lower than 3,000 feet AGL or the manufacturer's recommended altitude, whichever is higher (FAA-S-ACS-11A, Appendix 2).
If it turns out not to be possible to restart the powerplant or unfeather the propeller while airborne, the applicant and the evaluator should treat the situation as an emergency (Appendix 2).
Do you actually feather a propeller on this checkride?
It depends on the airplane and on your history. From Appendix 2:
Except for a type rating practical test, in a propeller-equipped airplane (including turboprop) the applicant must feather one propeller and shut down an engine unless the manufacturer prohibits it
If the applicant has not previously demonstrated multiengine tasks for the commercial certificate, they may not use a propeller-equipped airplane whose manufacturer prohibits feathering for an initial ATP multiengine certificate
If the test is conducted in an airplane requiring a type rating, the applicant may perform a simulated powerplant failure — and in that case, per Appendix 3, a restart procedure must be considered for the given scenario and a simulated restart should be performed if applicable to the airplane design and the scenario
In all other cases, the applicant must feather and unfeather the propeller while airborne
In an FSTD, feathering or shutdown may be performed in conjunction with any Task and at locations and altitudes at the evaluator's discretion (Appendix 3).
How do you decide whether to attempt a restart (VII.D K2, S7)?
Diagnose first, and let the diagnosis pick the branch. AFH ch. 13 draws the line clearly:
Not catastrophic — many power losses are related to fuel starvation, where power may be restored simply by selecting another tank. An orderly inventory of gauges and switches may reveal the problem. Alternate air can be selected, the engine may run smoothly on one magneto or at a lower power setting, altering the mixture may help, and boost pump operation may eliminate flow and pressure fluctuations if fuel vapor is suspected.
Catastrophic — heavy vibration, smoke, blistering paint, or large trails of oil indicate a critical situation. Feather the affected engine, complete the securing checklist, divert to the nearest suitable airport, and declare an emergency with ATC for priority handling (AFH ch. 13).
And the judgment call in between: "the engine should be left running if there is any doubt as to needing it for further safe flight" (AFH ch. 13). A precautionary shutdown of a partially producing engine is a decision to give away thrust you may want.
Why is drag reduction the organizing idea of inflight engine-out handling (VII.D K1)?
Because on one engine, the airplane's entire performance reserve is spent on drag you can eliminate. Until it is feathered, the propeller of the failed engine is windmilling, producing a great deal of drag and yawing tendency (AFH ch. 13). The same logic governs gear and flaps.
The priority list for controllability and performance:
Stop the yaw
Clean up the airframe
Feather
Trim to zero sideslip
Everything after that is bookkeeping. VII.D S3 grades it as "use flight controls in the proper combination as recommended by the manufacturer, or as required to maintain best performance, and trim as required."
An engine quits at cruise. Why is that handled differently from one that quits after takeoff?
Time and energy. "Engine failures well above the ground are handled differently than those occurring at lower speeds and altitudes. Cruise airspeed allows better airplane control and altitude, which may permit time for a possible diagnosis and remedy of the failure" (AFH ch. 13).
The trap that comes with that time is fixation: "Maintaining airplane control, however, is still paramount. Airplanes have been lost at altitude due to apparent fixation on the engine problem to the detriment of flying the airplane" (AFH ch. 13). In a crew airplane the antidote is structural — one pilot flies and nothing else, the other troubleshoots, and the assignment is spoken.
What is drift down, and how do you fly it?
If the airplane is above its single-engine absolute ceiling when the failure occurs, it will slowly lose altitude. Maintain the engine-out best rate of climb speed to minimize the rate of altitude loss. The drift-down rate is greatest immediately following the failure and decreases as the single-engine ceiling is approached (AFH ch. 13).
Two cautions from the same source: because of performance variations caused by engine and propeller wear, turbulence, and pilot technique, the airplane may not maintain altitude even at its published single-engine ceiling — though any further sink would likely be modest. And in transport-category operations, the drift-down profile and the terrain-clearance escape route are part of the dispatch plan, so ATC needs to know your intentions and your level-off altitude early.
What is fuel crossfeed for, and when do you use it?
Crossfeed is a method of getting fuel from a tank on one side of the airplane to an operating engine on the other, used for extended single-engine operation (AFH ch. 13). The decision rule is simple:
A suitable airport close at hand — no need to consider crossfeed
Prolonged single-engine flight is inevitable because no airport is available — crossfeed allows use of fuel that would otherwise be unavailable to the operating engine, and it lets you balance consumption to avoid out-of-balance wing heaviness
Two disciplines: AFM/POH crossfeed procedures vary widely — selector positions and boost pump usage differ greatly among multiengine airplanes, so thorough fuel system knowledge is essential. And prior to landing, terminate crossfeed and return the operating engine to its main tank supply (AFH ch. 13).
How would you even notice an engine failure in a descent?
You might not. "An engine failure in a descent or other low power setting can be deceiving. The dramatic yaw and performance loss is absent. At very low power settings, the pilot may not even be aware of a failure" (AFH ch. 13).
The diagnostic technique: if a failure is suspected, advance both engine mixtures, propellers, and throttles significantly — to the takeoff settings if necessary — to correctly identify the failed engine. The power on the operative engine can always be reduced later (AFH ch. 13). Do this before you are configured, slow, and low.
Which airport do you go to after a shutdown (VII.D S8)?
The ACS says select the nearest suitable airport or landing area (VII.D S8), and under part 121 that is a rule, not a preference: whenever an engine fails or is shut down to prevent possible damage, the PIC must land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made (121.565(a)).
The only relief is for airplanes with three or more engines losing not more than one, where the PIC may proceed to a selected airport after reasonably concluding it is as safe as landing at the nearest suitable one, weighing:
The nature of the malfunction
Altitude, weight, and usable fuel at shutdown
Weather en route and at possible landing points
Air traffic congestion
Terrain
Familiarity with the airport
(121.565(b)). That decision generates a written report to the director of operations (121.565(d)), and the shutdown itself must be reported to the appropriate communication facility as soon as practicable (121.565(c)).
Deep Dive
Recognition and the memory items (VII.D S1)
The first skill element asks for three things in one breath: recognize and correctly identify the failure, complete memory items if applicable, and maintain positive airplane control.
How do you identify the failed engine at cruise, where the yaw cue is weak?
Use the control cue first and confirm with instruments — the reverse of the instinct. AFH ch. 13 directs that identification be made "primarily through the control inputs required to maintain straight flight, not the engine gauges," because confirmation on the gauges may or may not be possible depending on the failure mode. Then verify by retarding the throttle of the suspect engine: no change in performance confirms the identification.
At altitude and low power the yaw may be subtle, which is why advancing all power levers to re-establish an asymmetry is a legitimate diagnostic step (AFH ch. 13). In a crew airplane, both pilots must agree aloud before any lever moves — a confirmed-and-challenged shutdown is the whole point of two-crew procedure, and shutting down the wrong engine is the accident this task exists to prevent.
What separates memory items from the checklist here?
Memory items are the small set of actions that must happen before there is time to read — typically confirming the failure, securing a fire, or preventing the failure from propagating. The ACS expects them completed "if applicable" (VII.D S1), and Appendix 2 acknowledges that when reading the actual checklist is impractical or unsafe, the evaluator assesses your immediate-action memory items along with your review of the appropriate checklist once conditions permit.
Then VII.D S2 takes over: coordinate with crew and complete the appropriate emergency procedures and checklists for propeller feathering or powerplant shutdown. Run them deliberately. The AFH's counsel applies at altitude even more than after takeoff: unless a fire is suspected, remaining items should be accomplished "deliberately and without undue haste," and "airplane control should never be sacrificed to execute the remaining checklists" (AFH ch. 13).
Keeping the good engine good (VII.D S5)
What does 'maintain the operating powerplant within acceptable operating limits' actually require of you?
It requires you to notice that the surviving engine is now doing a job it was not sized to do alone, often at a high power setting for a long time. Watch and manage:
Temperatures — ITT/TIT, CHT, and oil temperature climb with sustained high power and reduced airspeed; cowl flaps, mixture, or a small speed increase are the levers
Time limits — takeoff and maximum continuous power ratings carry AFM time limits; know which rating you are using and for how long
Fuel — the operating engine is burning from one side; crossfeed for balance on a long diversion, and terminate it before landing (AFH ch. 13)
Electrical and pneumatic load — with one generator and one bleed source, load shedding may be required before you need the hydraulics on approach
The examiner's version of this question is usually "how long can you hold that power setting?" The answer is in the AFM limitations section, and it is type-specific.
Why does trim get its own mention in the skill elements?
Because control forces on one engine are high enough to degrade everything else you have to do. AFH ch. 13 notes that after the initial rudder input, "control forces, particularly on the rudder, may be high," and that trim should be adjusted to lower them. An untrimmed airplane on one engine gives you a slow drift in heading, a creeping sideslip that costs climb performance, and a pilot whose leg is tiring during the exact phase where a precise approach is about to be required.
Trim to zero sideslip — the AFM's technique where published, otherwise a small bank toward the operating engine with the slip/skid ball displaced one-third to one-half toward the good engine (AFH ch. 13). Then re-trim after each configuration or power change.
Restart decisions in the real airplane
Under what conditions is a restart attempt appropriate — and inappropriate?
Appropriate — when the cause is understood and benign, altitude and time permit, and the AFM's restart envelope is satisfied. Turbine restart envelopes are bounded by altitude and airspeed — there is a windmilling relight range and, usually, a starter-assisted range with a lower ceiling. Get inside the envelope before pushing a button.
Inappropriate — when the failure was catastrophic, when there is any indication of fire or fuel leak, when the cause is unknown and the airplane is flying acceptably on the remaining engine, or when you are close enough to a suitable airport that the restart adds risk without adding options. A relight of an engine that failed for a mechanical reason can produce a fire you did not have a moment ago.
The ACS wording gives you room to reason: "consider a powerplant restart and, if appropriate, demonstrate the powerplant restart procedures in accordance with the manufacturer or operator specified procedures and checklists" (VII.D S7). Saying "I would not attempt a restart, and here is why" is a passing answer when the reasons are sound.
What risks does the ACS want you to talk about for inflight powerplant failure and restart (VII.D R1-R7)?
Six threads, each with a concrete mitigation:
Diagnosis of the cause (R3) — an inventory of gauges and switches before touching anything; confirm before you secure
Configuring the airplane (R5) — drag is the enemy; gear and flaps stay up until the landing is assured
Inadvertent stall, spin, and loss of control (R6) — the single-engine minimum control speed and the engine-out climb speed are floors, not targets; the accident record for engine failures is dominated by loss of control, not by the failure itself (AFH ch. 13)
Collision hazards (R4) — you are maneuvering off the airway, possibly descending in a drift-down, often distracted; ask ATC for traffic and keep one pilot looking outside in VMC
Distractions and task prioritization (R7) — the fixation warning from AFH ch. 13: airplanes have been lost at altitude because the crew worked the problem instead of flying
Methods for handling the failure or restart (R2) — follow the manufacturer's or operator's procedure; improvised sequences are how the wrong engine gets secured
Task E. Approach and Landing with a Powerplant Failure (Simulated) (AMEL, AMES)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with approach and landing with a powerplant failure in a multiengine airplane.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What are the ACS tolerances for the engine-out approach and landing?
The task splits its standards at the final approach segment.
Prior to beginning the final approach segment (VII.E S6):
Desired altitude ±100 feet
Desired airspeed ±10 knots
Desired heading ±5°
Accurately track courses, radials, and bearings
On the approach and landing (VII.E S7, S10, S11):
Recommended approach and landing configuration and airspeed ±5 knots, adjusting pitch attitude and power as required to maintain a stabilized approach
AMEL: touch down at the appropriate speed and pitch attitude at the runway aiming point markings -250/+500 feet, or where there are no runway markings, 750 to 1,500 feet from the approach threshold
AMES: during round out and touchdown, contact the water at the proper pitch attitude within 200 feet beyond a specified point, and touch down within the first one-third of the water landing area
Note the heading tolerance is ±5°, not the ±10° you get in Task VII.D — precision tightens as you get closer to the ground.
How will the failure be set up, and what must you demonstrate?
Per Appendix 3, Area VII Task E:
In a propeller-driven airplane other than one requiring a type rating, the evaluator will set zero thrust after you have simulated feathering the propeller following a simulated powerplant failure. You must then demonstrate at least one landing with a simulated feathered propeller with the powerplant set to zero thrust.
For all other airplanes, follow the manufacturer's recommended procedures.
In an airplane with three powerplants, you must follow a procedure — if approved by the manufacturer and the training program — that approximates the loss of two powerplants, the center and one outboard.
In other multiengine airplanes, follow a procedure that simulates the loss of 50 percent of available powerplants, the loss being simulated on one side.
How is an engine-out approach different from a normal one?
Less than you would expect, and that is the point. "The approach and landing with OEI is essentially the same as a two-engine approach and landing. The traffic pattern should be flown at similar altitudes, airspeeds, and key positions" (AFH ch. 13). The differences:
Reduced power available, and the remaining thrust is asymmetrical — a higher-than-normal power setting is necessary on the operative engine
Configuration becomes conditional rather than scheduled — each addition of drag is a decision, not a habit
Go-around capability may be gone, which changes when you are committed
One myth worth killing on the oral: the direction of the pattern is of no consequence to controllability or performance. "It is perfectly acceptable to make turns toward the failed engine" (AFH ch. 13).
Walk the engine-out pattern — when does each configuration change happen?
From AFH ch. 13, with the constant qualifier "performance permitting":
Downwind — with adequate airspeed and performance the gear can still be extended, and should be confirmed DOWN no later than abeam the intended point of landing. Initial flap extension (typically 10°) and the descent from pattern altitude can also begin here. Airspeed no slower than the engine-out best rate of climb speed.
Base — if performance is adequate, flaps to an intermediate setting (typically 25°). If performance is inadequate, as measured by decaying airspeed or a high sink rate, delay further flap extension until closer to the runway. The engine-out best rate of climb speed is still the minimum.
Final — a normal 3° glidepath, using VASI or other vertical path lighting if available. Slightly steeper is acceptable; a long, flat, low approach should be avoided, as should large sudden power applications or reductions.
Short final — maintain the engine-out best rate of climb speed until the landing is assured, then slow to 1.3 VSO or the AFM/POH recommended speed. The final flap setting may be delayed until the landing is assured, or the airplane may be landed with partial flaps.
Can you go around on one engine (VII.E K2, R6)?
Usually not, once you are configured. AFH ch. 13: "A single-engine go-around on final approach may not be possible. As a practical matter... once the airplane is on final approach with landing gear and flaps extended, it is committed to land on the intended runway, on another runway, a taxiway, or grassy infield."
The arithmetic behind it: most light twins do not have the performance to climb on one engine with gear and flaps extended, and losses of 500 feet or more are not unusual while maintaining the engine-out climb speed and retracting gear and flaps. If the gear was lowered by an alternate means of extension, retraction may not be possible, virtually negating any climb capability (AFH ch. 13).
The transport-category answer differs — a part 25 airplane has a certified approach-climb gradient with one engine inoperative (25.121(d)), flown in the approach configuration; note that the separate landing-climb requirement (25.119) is an all-engines-operating standard, so it is not what buys you a single-engine go-around — but the decision discipline is the same: decide early. A go-around begun at 50 feet with everything hanging out is a different maneuver than one begun at 500 feet.
What is the practical consequence of the go-around being unavailable?
It moves your decision point up the approach. If the airplane cannot go around from short final, then the last real decision is made at or before the point where you commit to the final configuration — and everything after that has to be right: the runway, the speed, the crosswind, and the touchdown zone.
That is why the ACS grades planning as a risk element (VII.E R1, "planning for a powerplant failure inflight or during an approach") and why the briefing you give before the approach should state the commitment point explicitly. In a crew airplane: "with the engine out, we are committed at [point]; below that we are landing."
How do you determine a suitable airport for the engine-out landing (VII.E K3)?
Start from the legal floor and add margin. Under part 121, an engine failure or a shutdown to prevent possible damage obliges the PIC to land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made (121.565(a)) — with the narrow three-or-more-engine relief in 121.565(b). "Suitable" then gets defined by the day:
Runway length for a possibly higher approach speed and degraded braking or spoiler function
Weather and approach type — an ILS you can fly manually beats a circling minimum with one engine out
Wind — a strong crosswind from the side of the failed engine adds a rudder demand you are already spending
Aircraft rescue and firefighting and the ability to stop on the runway rather than clear it
Terrain and the missed approach you may not be able to fly
Ask for the runway you want and say why. The controller cannot infer your performance limits.
With an engine out, do you still add the 15 percent time-of-arrival safety margin (SAFO 19001)?
When you can. SAFO 19001's landing distance assessment at time of arrival — normally begun around top of descent and completed no later than the commencement of the approach — adds a safety margin of at least 15 percent to the actual landing distance.
Emergency carve-out: during emergencies such as engine failure, the crew needs to know the absolute performance capability of the airplane — the actual landing distance without an added safety margin — because that number feeds the decision of whether it is safer to remain in the air or to land immediately (SAFO 19001, pointing at the PIC's 91.3(b) authority).
Use both numbers: the unfactored capability defines which runways are possible; the 15 percent-margined distance defines which are acceptable.
Closing rule:except under emergency conditions, do not attempt to land on a runway that does not meet the assessment criteria and safety margins.
The assessment machinery itself — RCAM, runway condition codes, braking action reports — is covered under Task III.B.
What happens to trim and yaw in the flare, and how do you prepare for it?
Expect a rudder trim change as the power of the operating engine is reduced to idle in the round out (AFH ch. 13). If the airplane is trimmed for asymmetric thrust and that thrust disappears, the trim is now pushing you the wrong way, a few feet above the runway.
Two accepted techniques (AFH ch. 13): fly it trimmed and be prepared for the change, or reset rudder trim to neutral on final and hold the rudder pressure for the remainder of the approach — which eliminates the trim change close to the ground at the cost of a tiring leg. Many pilots find groping for the trim on short final "highly distracting." Use the AFM/POH recommendation, or your own stated preference; the examiner wants to hear that you anticipated it.
Why does the airplane float more on an engine-out landing?
Because you removed drag. "With drag from only one windmilling propeller, the airplane tends to float more than on a two-engine approach. Precise airspeed control therefore is essential, especially when landing on a short, wet, and/or slippery surface" (AFH ch. 13).
That float is what the -250/+500 feet touchdown tolerance (VII.E S10) is really testing: excess speed over the threshold turns into runway consumed. In a jet the penalty is quantified — excess approach speed increases the minimum stopping distance required by 20 to 30 feet per knot on a dry runway and 40 to 50 feet on a wet one, and each excess knot extends the flare by approximately 250 feet (AFH ch. 16).
What is the stabilized approach standard you are being held to?
For a transport-category airplane, AFH ch. 16 gives the criteria:
In the landing configuration by 1,000 feet AGL — gear down, landing flaps selected, trim set, fuel balanced
On profile before descending below 1,000 feet, on an optimum glidepath angle of about 3°
Indicated airspeed between zero and 10 knots above target by 500 feet AGL
Descent rate matched to groundspeed — a rule of thumb is half the groundspeed times 10, so a 130-knot groundspeed gives about 650 fpm; typical rates fall between 500 and 700 fpm, and an excessive vertical speed may indicate a problem with the approach
"Every approach should be evaluated at 500 feet... If the approach is not stabilized at that height, a go-around should be initiated" (AFH ch. 16). With an engine out, that gate arrives while the go-around may still be available — which is exactly why it exists.
What does the ACS expect after touchdown?
Two elements that applicants forget under relief. Maintain positive aircraft control throughout the landing using drag and braking devices, as appropriate, to come to a stop (VII.E S12) — with asymmetric reverse thrust or asymmetric braking, directional control on the rollout is a live problem, not a formality. And coordinate with crew, if applicable, and complete after landing checklists (VII.E S13).
Directional control and appropriate crosswind correction are graded throughout the approach and landing (VII.E S8), and control application must be smooth, timely, and correct before, during, and after touchdown (VII.E S9).
Deep Dive
Configuring on a performance budget (VII.E R3)
Every notch of flap and the gear are withdrawals from an account with one engine paying into it. The examiner wants to see you check the balance before each one.
How do you decide whether performance supports the next configuration change?
Use the two symptoms AFH ch. 13 names as the test for inadequate performance: decay in airspeed or high sink rate. If either appears when you add drag, stop adding it and delay further extension until closer to the runway.
Build the habit into a callout: before each change, confirm you are at or above the engine-out reference speed, on or above profile, and that the power available is not already at its limit. If the operating engine is at maximum continuous and the airplane is still sinking below path, the next flap setting will not fix it — the runway needs to come to you differently, by shallowing the path or by asking for a longer final.
The one configuration item that is not reversible in many airplanes is the gear when extended by an alternate means (AFH ch. 13). Treat it as final.
What are the flight characteristics you should be able to describe for maneuvering to a landing with an inoperative powerplant (VII.E K1)?
Asymmetric thrust — a persistent yawing and rolling tendency that grows with power and shrinks with airspeed; you hold it with rudder and a small bank toward the operating engine
A higher minimum safe speed — the minimum control speed and the engine-out climb speed set floors that a normal approach never has to think about
Reduced deceleration — one windmilling or feathered propeller means less drag and more float (AFH ch. 13)
Higher power on the good side — which is exactly what makes the yaw worse when you need power most, on a low approach
Trim sensitivity — every power change is also a directional change
Add the transport-category items: with an engine out you may lose a hydraulic system, a generator, and a bleed source with it, so spoilers, thrust reverse, anti-skid, nosewheel steering, and flap rate may all be degraded. The approach speed you fly and the flap setting available come from the AFM's abnormal procedures, not from the normal landing page.
Low-altitude maneuvering and the accident record (VII.E R4)
Why is 'low altitude maneuvering, including stall, spin, or CFIT' a risk element on a landing task?
Because this is where multiengine airplanes are lost. The AFH's summary of the accident record is unambiguous: there is a very high success rate for engine-inoperative landings when the airplane is landed under control, and a very high fatality rate in stall-spin accidents when the pilot attempts flight beyond the performance capability of the airplane (AFH ch. 13).
The specific mechanism on an approach is a low, slow, dragged-in final where the pilot tries to arrest a sink rate with power on one side. The yaw increases, the pilot corrects with aileron, drag rises, speed decays, and the airplane departs at an altitude with no recovery room. The countermeasures are all upstream: fly the 3° path rather than a flat one, avoid large sudden power changes, hold the engine-out speed until the landing is assured, and go around early or not at all (AFH ch. 13).
How do you brief this approach in a crew airplane?
The ACS grades crew coordination in S2 and S13, and it is what makes the difference between a controlled arrival and a busy one. A usable brief covers:
The state — which engine is out, what is secured, which systems went with it
The airport and runway — why this one, the approach, the expected wind and surface condition
The speeds and configuration — the AFM's engine-out approach speed and flap setting, and the gear point
The commitment point — where a go-around stops being available
The go-around, if one exists — the initial altitude and heading, and who does what
Callouts — 1,000 and 500 stabilized gates, and the "committed" call
After landing — where you plan to stop, whether you can clear the runway, and whether you want equipment rolling
The evaluator may be occupying a required duty position and must perform the CRM functions you brief and request (FAA-S-ACS-11A, Appendix 2). Use them.
What collision hazards apply here (VII.E R2)?
You will be maneuvering at nonstandard speeds, possibly at a nonstandard pattern size, quite likely on a straight-in that other traffic does not expect, and with the crew's attention split between the airplane and the failure. Mitigations to name:
Tell ATC or the CTAF what you are doing and what you need, in plain language — "engine out, straight-in runway 27, need the runway"
Ask for traffic to be kept clear rather than assuming a declared emergency has done it
Keep one pilot's eyes outside in VMC while the other manages the failure
Use TCAS and ADS-B In deliberately, and remember your own maneuvering may be generating alerts for others
What are the classic errors on an engine-out approach and landing?
Configuring on schedule instead of on performance — full flaps at the normal point, then discovering the airplane cannot hold the path
Flying a flat, dragged-in final to avoid a high sink rate, which costs both landing distance and every option you had (AFH ch. 13)
Slowing below the engine-out reference speed before the landing is assured — the tolerance is ±5 knots (S7), and the floor matters more than the ceiling
Forgetting crossfeed is still selected — terminate it and return the operating engine to its main tank supply before landing (AFH ch. 13)
Being surprised by the trim change in the flare as power comes to idle (AFH ch. 13)
Floating past the touchdown zone and busting the -250/+500 feet tolerance because the approach carried excess speed
Letting the rollout drift while attention shifts to the checklist — S12 grades directional control to a stop
Task F. Precision Approach (Manually Flown) with a Powerplant Failure (Simulated) (AMEL, AMES)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with precision approach (manually flown) with a powerplant failure in a multiengine airplane.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What are the ACS tolerances for the manually flown precision approach with a powerplant failure?
Prior to beginning the final approach segment (VII.F S9):
Desired altitude ±100 feet
Desired airspeed ±10 knots
Desired heading ±5°
Accurately track courses, radials, and bearings
On the final approach segment (VII.F S12, S13):
Fly and maintain a stabilized approach, adjusting pitch and power as required, allowing no more than ¼-scale deflection of either the vertical or lateral guidance indications
Maintain a stabilized final approach from the FAF to the DA/DH with no more than ¼-scale deflection of either indication and the desired airspeed ±5 knots
Compare that to the instrument rating, where a precision approach allows ¾-scale deflection and ±10 knots. Same approach, same airplane, three times the lateral and vertical precision — with an engine out and no autopilot.
How is the single-engine precision approach set up on the checkride?
Four explicit requirements govern it (Appendix 3, Area VII Task F):
At least one precision approach must be flown without the use of an autopilot
You should begin manually flying prior to the final approach segment — not at the FAF, and certainly not at the DA
Manually flown precision approaches may use raw data displays or may be flight director assisted, at the discretion of the evaluator
The simulated powerplant failure should occur before initiating the final approach segment and continue to a landing or a missed approach procedure, at the evaluator's discretion
So the sequence you should expect:
Failure
Secure and stabilize
Brief the approach in its degraded configuration
Hand-fly the intercept
Hold ¼ scale to minimums while single-engine
What is the point of taking the autopilot away for this one approach?
To prove you can fly the airplane, not manage it. Everything else in a modern ATP profile is autopilot-coupled by SOP, and the single failure mode that most reliably ends badly is a crew that has to take over by hand, at low altitude, in a degraded configuration, having not done it recently.
Practical consequences for you on the day:
Trim relentlessly — an out-of-trim airplane on one engine will not hold ¼ scale
Set up the flight director in a mode you have verified, if the evaluator allows it, and cross-check it against raw data rather than following it blindly
Use the pilot monitoring — the ACS explicitly grades coordinating with crew and completing the approach and landing checklists (VII.F S7)
Hand-flying does not mean doing everything yourself.
What adjustments to DA/DH and visibility does the ACS expect you to apply (VII.F S10)?
You must apply adjustments to the published DA/DH and visibility criteria for the aircraft approach category, as appropriate, for factors including NOTAMs, inoperative aircraft or navigation equipment, and inoperative visual aids associated with the landing environment (VII.F S10).
At ATP level, add the ones your operations specifications impose that the chart does not show:
An operator's higher-than-published landing minima
Restrictions when an autopilot or flight director required for a low-visibility approach is inoperative
The fact that your approach category can rise with the speed you actually fly — which is a live issue when an engine-out approach speed pushes you into the next band
The examiner will hand you a NOTAM and a chart and expect the arithmetic, not a recital.
What descent rate do you set when vertical guidance begins (VII.F S11)?
A predetermined one — the ACS wants a number you computed, not a needle you chased. Establish a rate of descent at the point where vertical guidance begins which approximates that required for the aircraft to follow the vertical guidance (VII.F S11).
Compute it from groundspeed, not airspeed, and update it for the wind you actually have. The rule of thumb, from AFH ch. 16's stabilized approach discussion: half the groundspeed times 10 gives the fpm for a 3° path — a 130-knot groundspeed gives about 650 fpm, with typical rates between 500 and 700 fpm. Setting the rate at glidepath intercept means the needle centers and stays there; hunting for it means you spend the first mile outside ¼ scale.
What exactly must happen at the DA/DH (VII.F S15)?
One of two things, immediately:
Initiate the missed approach procedures if the required visual references for the runway are not distinctly visible and identifiable — or if in a seaplane; or
Transition to a normal landing approach only when the aircraft is in a position from which a descent to a landing on the runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvering
"Immediately" is the operative word. Appendix 3 makes both halves explicit: continuing a precision approach below DH/DA without the runway environment in sight constitutes unsatisfactory performance. However, even when you initiate the missed approach at the DA/DH, most airplanes briefly descend below DA/DH due to momentum, and that descent does not constitute unsatisfactory performance as long as it does not continue (FAA-S-ACS-11A, Appendix 3, Area VI Task I).
What are the missed approach considerations with a powerplant failure (VII.F K2)?
The published missed approach was designed for an airplane with all engines running. With one out, ask three questions before you ever start the approach:
Can you make the climb gradient? The standard missed approach gradient is 200 ft/NM; where a procedure requires more, the chart says so — and some approaches now publish two sets of minimums, the lower requiring a climb gradient greater than 200 ft/NM and the higher requiring none (IPH ch. 4). Your one-engine-inoperative gradient at this weight, altitude, and temperature comes from the AFM.
Can you make the turn? A missed approach with an early turn toward the failed engine, or into rising terrain, may not be flyable at your available climb rate.
What is the alternative? If the answer to either of the first two is no, you need a published or company engine-out missed approach, a different runway, a different airport, or an agreement with ATC ahead of time.
Say the answer out loud during the approach brief. The ACS grades "missed approach with a powerplant failure" as its own risk element (VII.F R7), and the mitigation is a plan, not a technique.
How do you configure for this approach with an engine out (VII.F S8)?
Establish the appropriate airplane configuration and airspeed considering meteorological and operating conditions (VII.F S8) — and for an engine-out approach, take both from the AFM's abnormal procedures section, not the normal landing page. That typically means a reduced flap setting and a higher approach speed than normal.
Two constraints that follow from it: a reduced flap setting means a more nose-up deck angle and a longer landing distance, which feeds runway selection. And the higher speed may move you up an approach category, which changes the minima you may use (VII.F S10). Neither number is one you should carry in your head from another type — this guide is type-agnostic, and the AFM and the FSB report are the authorities.
Where are you going, and what do you tell people (VII.F S5, S6)?
Proceed toward the nearest suitable airport (VII.F S6) — which under part 121 is not merely good practice but the rule after an engine failure or a shutdown to prevent damage: land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made (121.565(a)), with the narrow three-or-more-engine exception in 121.565(b).
Make radio calls as appropriate (VII.F S5):
Declare the emergency and state the failure
Ask for the approach and runway you want, and why
Request equipment standing by
Tell ATC what you can and cannot do on a missed approach before you need to fly one
Under 121.557(c) you are obliged to keep ATC and dispatch fully informed of the progress of the flight, and 121.565(c) requires the shutdown itself to be reported to the appropriate communication facility as soon as practicable.
What does 'stabilized' mean here, given that the approach is already abnormal?
The gates do not move because you have a problem. AFH ch. 16's criteria still apply:
In the landing configuration by 1,000 feet AGL
On profile before descending through 1,000 feet on about a 3° path
Indicated airspeed between zero and 10 knots above target by 500 feet AGL
A descent rate matched to groundspeed
"Every approach should be evaluated at 500 feet... If the approach is not stabilized at that height, a go-around should be initiated" (AFH ch. 16).
What does change is what "landing configuration" means — the AFM's engine-out flap setting and speed — and what the go-around from that gate would cost you. Decide before the approach which of those two facts governs, and brief it.
Deep Dive
Holding ¼ scale by hand, on one engine
The tolerance is not achieved on final. It is achieved by arriving at the FAF already trimmed, already configured, and already on speed.
What technique actually keeps the needles inside ¼ scale?
Small, early, and trimmed:
Trim continuously. On one engine the rudder demand changes with every power change. An untrimmed airplane produces a slow heading drift that shows up as a localizer deviation you then over-correct.
Fly heading, not needle. Establish a drift-corrected heading that holds the localizer and change it in 1 to 2° increments. Chasing the CDI with bank produces a divergent oscillation, especially as sensitivity increases near the runway.
Set the computed descent rate at glidepath intercept (VII.F S11) rather than pitching to center the needle. Then correct with rate changes of 50 to 100 fpm.
Change one thing at a time. Power for path, pitch for speed, or the other way per your training — but not both at once while also retrimming.
Use the pilot monitoring. Deviation callouts exist so the pilot flying does not have to detect small errors while also holding the airplane straight.
Carry the ¼-scale standard as what it is — a stability gate, not a geometric guarantee. Treat it as the working rule of thumb that it is the largest deviation you can correct with small inputs without destabilizing the approach; how much lateral distance a quarter scale actually represents varies with your distance from the localizer antenna and with the individual facility's course width, so it is not a fixed number of feet.
How should you use the flight director when the evaluator allows it?
As a cross-check, not as a source of truth. Appendix 3 permits manually flown precision approaches to be raw data or flight director assisted, at the discretion of the evaluator — so establish which one you are flying before the approach, and brief it.
If you use it:
Verify the mode and the source. A director slaved to a failed or mis-tuned source is worse than nothing, and with a powerplant failure you may have lost the systems feeding it.
Cross-check raw data continuously — the CDI and glideslope, the altimeter at the FAF, and the DA on the altimeter bug. If the bars and the raw data disagree, believe the raw data and say so.
Do not follow the bars through a failure. If the director commands something the airplane cannot do on one engine, the airplane's limits win.
If you are on raw data, say that too, and expect a slightly larger scan workload. Neither choice is worth more points; being unclear about which you are doing costs you.
How do you determine a suitable airport for this approach (VII.F K3)?
Start from the legal floor: under part 121 an engine failure or a shutdown to prevent possible damage obliges you to land at the nearest suitable airport, in point of time, at which a safe landing can be made (121.565(a)), with the narrow three-or-more-engine relief in 121.565(b). "Nearest" is the constraint; "suitable" is the judgment, and on this task it is driven by the approach you will have to fly:
Approach type and minima — an ILS you can hand-fly to ¼ scale beats a non-precision or circling minimum with an engine out; the lowest minima and the most stable guidance win
Runway length for a higher engine-out approach speed, a flatter reduced-flap path, and possibly degraded spoilers, reverse, or anti-skid
Wind — a strong crosswind from the side of the failed engine adds rudder demand you are already spending
The missed approach — pick the airport whose miss you can actually make on one engine, with the least turning and the lowest required gradient (K2, R7)
Terrain around the approach and missed approach paths
Aircraft rescue and firefighting, and whether you can stop on the runway rather than clear it
Note the coupling: your K2 and R7 answers depend on this choice, so make it before you brief the approach, and say why you rejected the closer field if you did.
What collision hazards apply on an engine-out instrument approach (VII.F R2)?
You are flying a nonstandard profile with the crew's attention divided, and in IMC you cannot see and avoid at all. Name the mitigations:
Tell ATC what you need and what you cannot do — the speed you will fly, the runway you want, and whether you can accept vectors or a hold
Ask for traffic to be kept clear rather than assuming a declared emergency has done it, and request a discrete frequency
Expect to be slower than the traffic behind you on final at an engine-out approach speed with reduced flaps — the spacing ATC planned may no longer work
Use TCAS and ADS-B In deliberately, and remember your own maneuvering may be generating alerts for others
Break out into a busy VFR environment — at the DA you may be joining a pattern nobody sequenced you into
If you go missed, your climb gradient and turn will not match the published expectation, which is its own separation problem — say so before you fly it.
Why is low altitude maneuvering — stall, spin, CFIT — a risk element on a precision approach (VII.F R4)?
Because the final segment of an engine-out approach is exactly where the multiengine accident record concentrates. The AFH is blunt: a very high success rate for engine-inoperative landings when the airplane is landed under control, and a very high fatality rate in stall-spin accidents when the pilot attempts flight beyond the performance capability of the airplane (AFH ch. 13).
The mechanism on this task is specific:
Holding the glidepath by pitch alone lets speed decay
The pilot adds power on the operating engine to arrest the sink
Asymmetric yaw increases
The correction goes in with aileron
Drag rises and speed decays further — at low altitude, in IMC, with no horizon
That is why S13's ±5 knots matters more on the low side than the high: the floor is VMC and the engine-out climb speed — a controllability limit and a performance floor, not tolerances.
The CFIT half is the missed approach you briefed but cannot fly. If your one-engine-inoperative gradient will not make the published 200 ft/NM — or more where charted — then flying it is a controlled descent into terrain with the autopilot off. The countermeasures are all upstream:
Set the computed descent rate at intercept
Trim continuously
Hold the engine-out speed until the landing is assured
Decide at the DA without deliberation
Never accept an approach whose miss exceeds your climb capability
Maneuvering in IMC with an engine out (VII.F R8)
What makes IMC with a powerplant failure so much harder than the same failure in VMC?
Every cue you would otherwise get for free has to be manufactured. There is no horizon to hold the wings against while you sort out asymmetric thrust, no runway to bias the approach toward, no visual check on the terrain you are descending over, and no easy answer to "where should I go" other than what is on the chart and in the FMS.
The mitigations are procedural rather than clever:
Stabilize before you navigate. Control, configuration, then the plan — the AFH's warning about fixation applies with more force when the instruments are the only reference (AFH ch. 13).
Use ATC as an instrument — vectors, distance to the field, terrain, and weather, so the crew's capacity goes to flying.
Pick the approach that demands the least of the airplane — the lowest minima, the longest runway, the least turning in the missed approach.
Brief the failure case of the failure case. What if the approach does not work out? With one engine, "we will just come back around" is often not an available answer.
What if you lose the approach guidance during the final segment?
Go missed, and say so. There is no version of this task where you continue a precision approach without valid vertical and lateral guidance — Appendix 3 makes continuing below DH/DA without the runway environment in sight unsatisfactory, and continuing on a failed signal is worse.
The practical response with an engine already out:
Initiate the missed approach at your current position
Climb on the profile you know your airplane can make
Tell ATC immediately what failed and what you can accept next
Reassess the airport choice
If the approach that just failed was the only one at that airport within your capability, the decision to divert has already been made for you — the question is only how quickly you recognize it.
The landing and the touchdown (VII.F S14, S16)
What is graded after the DA on a single-engine precision approach?
Maintain directional control and appropriate crosswind correction throughout the approach and landing or missed approach (VII.F S14), and make smooth, timely, and correct control application before, during, and after touchdown or during the missed approach (VII.F S16).
Note what the task does not carry: unlike Task VII.E, there is no touchdown-point tolerance here. This task is scored on the approach and on the transition — either to a landing at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvering, or to a missed approach initiated immediately (S15). The landing quality standard is qualitative, but "smooth, timely, and correct" with asymmetric thrust and a possible rudder trim change in the flare is not a low bar (AFH ch. 13).
What errors sink applicants on the single-engine precision approach?
Taking the autopilot off too late. The ACS wants you manually flying prior to the final approach segment (Appendix 3). Clicking off at the FAF means your first trim inputs happen while the tolerance is already ¼ scale.
Arriving unconfigured. Every configuration change on final costs trim, speed, and needle position.
Chasing the glideslope with pitch alone instead of setting the computed rate at intercept (S11).
Missing the minima adjustment for an inoperative component or a category change driven by the engine-out approach speed (S10).
Hesitating at the DA. The decision is binary and immediate; deliberation is what turns a legal miss into an illegal descent (S15, Appendix 3).
Briefing a missed approach the airplane cannot fly on one engine (K2, R7).
Letting airspeed sag toward the low side. The tolerance is ±5 knots (S13), but the floor — VMC and the engine-out climb speed — is a controllability and performance floor, not a tolerance.
Task G. Landing from a No Flap or a Nonstandard Flap Approach
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with no flap or a nonstandard flap approach and landing.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What are the ACS tolerances for the no-flap or nonstandard-flap landing?
The touchdown point is negotiated first, then held. VII.G S8 requires you to touch down at an acceptable point on the runway that is agreed upon between the applicant and the evaluator — at the appropriate speed and pitch attitude, at the agreed-upon point -250/+500 feet (ASEL, AMEL).
For seaplanes (VII.G S9), touch down at an acceptable point on the landing surface; during round out and touchdown, contact the water at the proper pitch attitude within 200 feet beyond a specified point (ASES, AMES), and for AMES the touchdown must be within the first one-third of the water landing area.
Then maintain positive aircraft control throughout the landing using drag and braking devices, as appropriate, to come to a stop (VII.G S10) — which, with a higher touchdown speed and possibly degraded lift dump, is the half of the maneuver that consumes the runway.
Is the no flap or nonstandard flap landing always required?
Nearly. Appendix 3, Area VII Task G: "This Task is required unless an airplane FSBR has indicated otherwise." The evaluator must determine whether checking on slats-only and partial-flap approaches is necessary for the practical test, and in making that determination the probability of asymmetrical flap failures should be considered (FAA-S-ACS-11A, Appendix 3).
So the specific configuration you fly is not fixed by the ACS — it comes from your airplane's failure modes and its Flight Standardization Board report. Know what your type's realistic flap and slat failures are, and which of them the FSBR calls out.
Why does a no-flap landing take so much more runway?
Because you removed the device that lets you fly slowly and descend steeply at the same time. Flap deflection up to 15° primarily produces lift with minimal drag; deflection beyond 15° produces a large increase in drag (AFH ch. 9, ch. 12). Without it you carry a higher approach and touchdown speed and a flatter approach path.
The AFH's figure for light airplanes: a no-flap landing requires substantially more runway, and the increase in required landing distance could be as much as 50 percent (AFH ch. 18). For a transport-category airplane, do not use that number — use the AFM's abnormal-configuration landing distance for the exact flap or slat setting you have, corrected for weight, wind, runway condition, and any inoperative spoilers, reversers, or anti-skid that came with the failure.
How do you calculate landing distance and pick a runway (VII.G K3, S3)?
Work it as a landing performance assessment for the day, not a table lookup:
Start from the AFM abnormal/nonstandard configuration landing distance for your actual flap or slat position
Correct for the day — weight, pressure altitude, temperature, wind component, runway slope, and the reported runway condition code (RwyCC), contaminant type and depth, or braking action report for the portion of runway you will use (SAFO 19001)
Subtract what else failed with the flaps — degraded spoilers, no autobrakes, no reverse, or an anti-skid system that went with the hydraulic system
Add margin — the time-of-arrival assessment standard is a safety margin of at least 15 percent over actual landing distance (SAFO 19001), on top of honest accounting for the higher approach speed you will actually fly and the float that comes with it
Then choose the runway — length first, then wind, then surface condition, then approach type
VII.G S3 makes the crew and ATC part explicit: communicate with ATC as needed and select an airport/runway with sufficient length for landing. Ask for the long runway, tell them why, and accept the extra track miles.
What do 'wet' and 'contaminated' actually mean when you pick the runway (VII.G R2)?
SAFO 19001's definitions are precise, and the distinction moves your numbers:
Dry — clear of contaminants and visible moisture within the required length and the width being used
Contaminated — the runway condition report includes the type and depth (if applicable) of the substance: water, dry snow, wet snow, slush, ice, frost, sanded, or chemical treatment
Wet — simply neither dry nor contaminated
The trap the SAFO names: the preflight wet or slippery landing data required by 121.195 and 135.385 may not provide adequate runway length for landing on a wet or contaminated surface (SAFO 19001). You are already landing long and fast by configuration; on anything other than a dry runway, run the full time-of-arrival assessment (Task III.B) with the at least 15 percent margin, and prefer the long, dry runway even at the cost of track miles — S3 grades you on asking for it.
What speeds do you fly, and where do they come from (VII.G S4)?
The ACS asks you to calculate the correct airspeeds/V-speeds for approach and landing (VII.G S4). In a transport-category airplane those are AFM-published corrections for the abnormal configuration — typically a VREF increment tied to the flap or slat setting, plus any wind or ice additive your operator applies. They are type-specific and weight-specific, and this guide will not assert a number for your airplane: take them from the AFM and the FSB report.
What you can state confidently is the shape of it. The stall speed rises as flap deflection decreases, so the approach and threshold speeds rise with it. The consequence — spelled out in AFH ch. 16 — is that excess approach speed increases the minimum stopping distance required by 20 to 30 feet per knot on a dry runway and 40 to 50 feet on a wet one, and each excess knot extends the flare by approximately 250 feet. In this configuration your speed is already high by design; carrying additional speed on top of it is where the runway runs out.
What does the trim state look like in this configuration, and why does the ACS call it out (VII.G S5)?
S5 is explicit — establish the recommended approach and landing configuration, airspeed, and trim, adjusting pitch attitude and power as required to maintain a stabilized approach. Trim is named because a nonstandard flap setting changes the trim state substantially, and applicants fly the whole approach out of trim while fighting the airplane.
What actually changes:
Less flap means less nose-down pitching moment from the flaps and a more nose-high deck angle to hold altitude (AFH ch. 18) — so the trim position that felt right in the normal configuration is wrong here.
The approach speed is higher, which changes the trim requirement again; every VREF increment for the abnormal configuration is another retrim.
Retrim after every configuration change and every power change, and finish trimming before the stabilized gate — an out-of-trim airplane on a flatter, faster approach will not hold a stable path, and the control forces mask the speed cues you need.
In a split-flap case, do not trim away the roll. You are holding almost full aileron to keep the wings level and substantial opposite rudder (AFH ch. 18); trimming out that force can leave you with no reserve and hides how close to the limit you are. Trim pitch, hold the roll and yaw manually, and say so.
The examiner is listening for trim as a deliberate step in your flow, not as something you got around to.
What changes about the approach picture with no flaps?
The airplane sits nose-high and does not want to come down. From AFH ch. 18:
The airplane must be flown in a relatively nose-high attitude to maintain altitude compared with flaps extended, and losing altitude is harder without the drag flaps normally provide
A wider, longer pattern may be required to avoid diving to lose altitude and building excessive airspeed
On final, the nose-high attitude makes it difficult to see the runway, which if not anticipated causes serious errors in judging height and distance
The attitude can also create the perception of being close to a stall, tempting the pilot to lower the nose abruptly and risk touching down on the nosewheel
With flaps retracted and power reduced, the airplane is slightly less stable in pitch and roll
Add the transport-category version of the same problem: the higher-than-normal deck angle changes your visual aim point and the geometry between your eye and the main gear, and it reduces tail clearance — an extended or excessive flare in this configuration risks a tail strike (AFH ch. 16, ch. 18). That is one more reason the technique is to fly the airplane onto the runway rather than hold it off.
How do you fly the flare and touchdown without flaps?
Deliberately. Without flaps the airplane tends to float considerably during round out (AFH ch. 18), and the two failure modes are opposite: do not force the airplane onto the runway at an excessively high speed — the temptation when the float will not end — and do not flare excessively, since without flaps that can cause the tail to strike the runway (AFH ch. 18).
The jet technique from AFH ch. 16 resolves the tension: the airplane should be flown onto the runway rather than held off. A firm landing is normal and desirable — deliberate and positive, not hard — and "it is essential to fly the airplane onto the runway at the target touchdown point, even if the speed is excessive." An extended flare while speed bleeds off can consume hundreds or thousands of feet.
How do you recognize an asymmetric or split flap, and what does it feel like?
An asymmetric "split" flap is one in which one flap deploys or retracts while the other remains in position, and it announces itself as a pronounced roll toward the wing with the least flap deflection when the flaps are extended or retracted (AFH ch. 18).
Control-wise it is a cross-control condition. The roll is countered with opposite aileron; the yaw from the additional drag of the extended flap requires substantial opposite rudder. Almost full aileron may be required to maintain wings level, especially at the reduced airspeed necessary for approach and landing (AFH ch. 18).
The recognition discipline is to stop moving the flap handle the instant the roll appears. Whether your airplane has asymmetry protection that locks the flaps in place, and whether the split can progress after you stop commanding motion, are type-specific questions — confirm them in the AFM and the FSB report rather than assuming, because the recovery technique differs if the system will not arrest the split for you. Then diagnose from the flap position indicator, not from feel alone.
How do you fly an approach with a split flap?
Three rules from AFH ch. 18, and they are absolute enough to memorize:
Do not attempt to land with a crosswind from the side of the deployed flap — the additional roll control required to counteract the crosswind may not be available, because you are already holding most of the aileron you have
Fly the approach at a higher than normal airspeed
Do not risk an asymmetric stall and subsequent loss of control by flaring excessively — fly the airplane onto the runway so touchdown occurs at an airspeed consistent with a safe margin above flaps-up stall speed
That first rule drives runway selection before anything else: with the right flap extended, you want the wind from the left or straight down the runway. Say that in the brief.
What other airplane limitations matter when landing at a high speed (VII.G K2)?
The ones with a speed or energy number attached:
Tire speed limits — a real limit on a hot, high, heavy landing at an increased VREF, and one that appears in the AFM limitations section
Maximum brake energy — a high-speed, heavy landing may approach or exceed the brake energy limit, with fuse-plug release and a fire risk on the rollout
VLE and VLO — the gear may need to come down earlier at a speed you must respect
VFE for whatever flap setting you do have — a partial setting has its own limit speed
Structural landing weight and touchdown sink rate — a fast, firm landing at high weight is exactly the combination the limits exist for
Runway remaining after a long touchdown — every excess knot and every extra foot of threshold height compounds; an extra 50 feet of height over the threshold adds approximately 1,000 feet to the landing distance (AFH ch. 16)
Have the AFM open on this one during the oral. The examiner is testing whether you know where the numbers live, not whether you memorized them.
What does the go-around look like from a nonstandard flap configuration (VII.G R4)?
Different enough that it needs a brief. You are heavier on speed and lighter on lift, the pitch-up you normally get from flap retraction is not there, and in a split-flap case a large power application adds asymmetric drag effects to a control situation that is already near its limits.
Brief it as: decide early (the 500-foot stabilized gate from AFH ch. 16 still governs), apply power smoothly rather than abruptly, hold the attitude the AFM specifies for the configuration you have, and change nothing about the flap configuration unless the abnormal checklist tells you to. In a split-flap case, retracting the good flap to match may or may not be an approved action — that comes from the AFM, not from instinct.
Deep Dive
Identifying the malfunction (VII.G S1)
The first skill element is diagnosis, and the answer to "what is wrong" determines every number that follows.
How do you work out what actually failed?
Separate the three families, because the procedures diverge:
A flap that will not move at all — an electrical, hydraulic, or drive failure, or a position where a load-relief system has intervened. The airplane is symmetric; you have a no-flap or partial-flap landing.
A flap that will not move past a position — a partial extension, often accompanied by a slat disagreement. The airplane is symmetric but the AFM speeds are for a specific position, so confirm the actual position on the indicator.
An asymmetry — the roll cue described in AFH ch. 18, plus a disagree annunciation on most transport-category airplanes. Stop the handle, hold the airplane, then diagnose.
Then confirm what went with it. Flaps are usually driven by a system that also drives something else — spoilers, reversers, gear, or nosewheel steering. The failure that stopped the flaps may have taken your stopping devices too, which is the difference between a long landing and an overrun.
What are the crew and checklist expectations here (VII.G S2)?
Coordinate with crew, if applicable, and complete applicable checklists for the malfunction, approach, and landing (VII.G S2). That is three checklists, and applicants lose points by running only the first.
Sequence it:
Stop the handle
Fly the airplane
Run the abnormal checklist for the malfunction
Compute the abnormal-configuration VREF and landing distance
Re-brief the approach and landing with the new speeds, touchdown point, and runway requirement
Run the normal approach and landing checklists as amended
The re-brief is the step that gets skipped, and it is the one the evaluator is listening for — the airplane you briefed at the top of descent is not the airplane you are about to land.
Where you touch down, and why it is negotiated
Why does the ACS have you agree on the touchdown point with the evaluator?
Because the right touchdown point depends on the airplane and the configuration, and the ACS is type-agnostic. VII.G S8 has you touch down at "an acceptable point on the runway that is agreed upon between the applicant and the evaluator," then holds you to -250/+500 feet of it.
Pick it deliberately. The transport-category default is the touchdown target zone about 1,000 feet beyond the runway threshold (AFH ch. 16), and that is normally the right answer here too — landing long to "use the flat approach" gives away exactly the runway your higher touchdown speed needs. The performance chain is unforgiving: a 2° approach angle instead of 3° adds 500 feet to landing distance, and an extra 50 feet of threshold height adds about 1,000 feet (AFH ch. 16).
What does 'positive aircraft control using drag and braking devices' require after touchdown (VII.G S10)?
Getting the airplane on the ground and keeping it there, then stopping it in the distance you computed:
Fly it on positively — a firm, deliberate touchdown at the target point, not a held-off greaser (AFH ch. 16)
Get the lift off the wing — spoilers or speedbrakes, verified deployed; at a high touchdown speed the wing is still making a great deal of lift, and brakes do nothing until weight is on them
Brakes and reverse in the sequence your SOP specifies, and monitored — if a hydraulic failure caused the flap problem, assume degraded braking until proven otherwise
Directional control first — but know the cost: differential braking applied to maintain directional control also diminishes the effectiveness of the brakes. The AFH states this in its rejected-takeoff technique discussion (AFH ch. 16); the physics is identical on a landing rollout, so budget for it when your computed stopping distance was already long
Do not retract anything on the rollout — reconfiguring at speed after a flap malfunction is how the wrong handle gets moved
Then get off the runway or stop, tell ATC, and consider brake temperature before you plan a taxi.
Risks the examiner will probe (VII.G R1-R7)
Wake turbulence and runway choice — why are these called out here (R2, R3)?
Because your options are narrower than usual and the consequences are larger. On runway selection (R2), you are choosing on aircraft limitations, available distance, surface conditions, and wind — and with a split flap, the crosswind side is a hard constraint, not a preference (AFH ch. 18). A shorter runway that solves the crosswind problem may not solve the distance problem; that tension is the decision the examiner wants to watch you make.
On wake turbulence (R3), you are flying a flatter, faster, longer approach that may put you below and behind the preceding aircraft's flight path for longer than usual, and in a split-flap case you have little roll authority in reserve to handle an upset. Ask for increased spacing explicitly, and accept the delay.
What collision hazards does this configuration create (VII.G R5)?
A flatter, faster, longer approach puts you where other traffic does not expect you, for longer than usual:
You are fast on final — an increased VREF closes on preceding traffic and compresses the spacing the controller planned. Say your actual approach speed so ATC can re-sequence rather than discovering it on final.
You are flat and low, farther out — the extended straight-in needed to avoid diving to lose altitude (AFH ch. 18) puts you through altitudes and positions a normal pattern would not use, including under traffic on downwind or base.
A wider, longer pattern at a non-towered field takes you outside the area where other pilots are looking for you; make position reports that state the abnormal configuration and the extended final.
Your roll authority may be committed. In a split-flap case you are holding almost full aileron (AFH ch. 18), so an evasive maneuver you would normally make is not fully available — which turns a routine conflict into a serious one. Ask for the traffic to be moved rather than planning to maneuver around it.
Eyes are inside running three checklists and recomputing speeds (S2, S4); assign someone to look out.
How does low altitude maneuvering, stall, spin, or CFIT apply to a no flap or nonstandard flap approach (VII.G R6)?
Two distinct threats, and only one of them is the asymmetric stall.
Stall and loss of control. With reduced or asymmetric flaps the stall speed is higher than the one you normally fly to, and in a split-flap case the airplane will stall asymmetrically and roll toward the less-deflected wing while you are already near full aileron. The AFH's rule is absolute: do not risk an asymmetric stall and subsequent loss of control by flaring excessively — fly the airplane onto the runway so touchdown occurs at an airspeed consistent with a safe margin above flaps-up stall speed (AFH ch. 18). The no-flap version of the same error is the opposite one: the nose-high attitude creates the perception of being close to a stall, tempting an abrupt nose-down input and a nosewheel-first touchdown (AFH ch. 18).
CFIT. This is the dimension applicants miss. A flatter approach path flown faster over a longer final means you are lower, farther out, for more time than the procedure designers assumed — a shallower-than-3° path near terrain, obstacles, or an approach's step-down fixes. Concretely: a 2° approach angle instead of 3° adds 500 feet to landing distance (AFH ch. 16), and it also puts you meaningfully below the normal glidepath miles from the runway. So fly the vertical guidance you have rather than eyeballing the flat picture, respect minimum altitudes even though the airplane does not want to descend later, and if the path forces you into terrain-critical airspace, choose a different runway or a different airport (R2, S3).
What are the classic errors on a no flap or nonstandard flap landing?
Flying the normal VREF. The speeds come from the AFM for the actual configuration (S4); the normal-landing page does not apply.
Computing distance without the associated failures. No spoilers, no reverse, or no autobrakes changes the answer more than the flap setting does.
Continuing to move the flap handle after the first sign of asymmetry.
Accepting a crosswind from the deployed-flap side — the AFH's prohibition, and the one that ends in a runway excursion (AFH ch. 18).
Excessive flare — a tail strike in a no-flap landing, an asymmetric stall in a split-flap landing (AFH ch. 18).
Landing long because the flat approach and the float made the aim point drift, then busting -250/+500 feet with a longer stopping distance to cover.
Skipping the re-brief after the new numbers are computed (S2).
Not asking for the runway you need. S3 grades communicating with ATC and selecting an airport and runway with sufficient length — accepting the runway offered because it was offered is the wrong instinct here.
Area VIII. Postflight Procedures
Task A. After Landing, Parking, and Securing (ASEL, AMEL)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with after landing, parking, and securing procedures.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
What must you do after landing and reaching taxi speed (VIII.A S1, AIM 4-3-21)?
Exit the runway without delay at the first available taxiway, or on a taxiway as instructed by ATC
Pilots must not exit the landing runway onto another runway unless authorized by ATC
At an airport with an operating control tower, pilots should not stop or reverse course on the runway without first obtaining ATC approval
AIM 4-3-21 opens by saying these procedures "must be followed" and is precise about which items are musts. These exit procedures — together with the taxi-clear and hold procedures in the next question — are "considered an integral part of the landing clearance" and satisfy "the requirement of 14 CFR section 91.129" (AIM 4-3-21). In a transport-category airplane the runway-incursion version of this task is mostly about the exit itself — a high-speed turnoff taken at the AFM/SOP speed, then a deliberate stop point, not a rolling negotiation about where you are.
When is the airplane actually 'clear of the runway' — and what do you do the moment it is (AIM 4-3-21)?
An aircraft is clear of the runway when all parts of the aircraft are past the runway edge and there are no restrictions to its continued movement beyond the runway holding position markings. Absent ATC instructions, taxi beyond the holding position markings even if that requires the aircraft to protrude into or cross another taxiway or ramp area — a long fuselage that stops with the tail on the hold-short line has not cleared the runway.
Then the rule that catches crews at unfamiliar airports: once all parts of the aircraft have crossed the runway holding position markings, hold unless further instructions have been issued by ATC (AIM 4-3-21). The tower will issue instructions permitting entry to another taxiway, runway, or ramp area when required.
What are the radio expectations during taxi-in (VIII.A S2)?
Change to ground control frequency when advised by the tower and obtain a taxi clearance — the tower resolves any potential conflicts with other ground traffic before sending you over (AIM 4-3-21). Then the trap written into the same paragraph: ground's taxi clearance to parking does not authorize the aircraft to "enter" or "cross" any runways. Every runway between you and the gate needs an explicit crossing clearance.
Pilots not familiar with the taxi route should request specific taxi instructions (AIM 4-3-21). At the ATP level the crew discipline behind that sentence is what gets graded: both pilots copy the taxi route, the chart is out, and a crossing clearance is verbalized and confirmed by both seats before the airplane crosses anything.
Does the sterile flight deck rule still apply after you land (121.542)?
Yes — all the way to the gate. Critical phases of flight include all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff and landing, and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000 feet except cruise flight; taxi is defined as "movement of an airplane under its own power on the surface of an airport" (121.542(c)).
Duties: during a critical phase, no crewmember may perform duties except those required for the safe operation of the aircraft — the rule's own examples of what does not qualify: company calls for ordering galley supplies or confirming passenger connections, PA announcements promoting the carrier or pointing out sights, and filling out payroll records (121.542(a))
Distractions: no crewmember may engage in — or the PIC permit — any activity that could distract any crewmember: eating meals, nonessential conversation in the cockpit or with the cabin, reading unrelated publications (121.542(b))
Devices: during all flight time, no crewmember may use — nor may any PIC permit — a personal wireless communications device or laptop computer while at a flight crewmember duty station, unless the purpose is directly related to operation of the aircraft or for emergency, safety-related, or employment-related communications under approved carrier procedures (121.542(d))
The taxi-in after a long leg, with the flow done and the gate in sight, is precisely where this rule earns its keep; texting the crew van fails that test, and the professional answer to the R1 probe is that the phone stays away until the parking checklist is complete.
When does the after-landing flow happen, and how does a crew run it (VIII.A S3)?
The ACS wording sets the trigger: coordinate with crew and complete the appropriate checklist(s) after clearing the runway (VIII.A S3). Nothing gets reconfigured on the runway or during the turnoff — flaps, speedbrakes, and transponder can wait; the wrong-handle history behind that discipline is covered in the commercial guide's Task XI.A.
In a crew airplane the flow is divided by SOP: typically the pilot monitoring reconfigures the airplane on the captain's command once clear, silently and by flow, then the checklist is read to verify. Two graded behaviors ride on it — the flow does not start until the airplane is clear of the runway with the taxi clearance understood, and heads-down time is managed so one pilot is always outside. Sterile flight deck still applies (121.542(c)), so the flow happens without the debrief conversation starting.
What is different about parking a jet at a gate versus parking a light airplane (VIII.A S4)?
The ACS asks you to park "at the gate or in an appropriate area, considering the safety of nearby persons and property" (VIII.A S4). The transport-category realities:
You cannot see your wingtips or your exhaust. Gate entry is flown on the marshaller, the docking guidance system, or wing walkers — and it stops the moment guidance is lost or contradicts what you see.
Hand signals are standardized — the AIM publishes them (AIM 4-3-26), the AFH reproduces them, and the AFH notes that other sets exist (AC 00-34, military); what matters is "a suitable, agreed-upon set of signals," and at night the Emergency Stop signal is used for all stop indications (AFH ch. 2, fig. 2-13).
Jet blast when taxiing into parking areas may affect any loose ground equipment, and adding too much power to start moving "can pull damaging debris up off the ground or cause damage well behind the aircraft" (AFH ch. 16) — breakaway thrust near a crowded ramp is a briefed, minimum-power event.
Lights are signals: the FAA recommends air carriers turn on rotating beacons anytime engines are in operation, and strobes should be off on the ground when they adversely affect ground personnel or other pilots (AIM 4-3-24). Keep the beacon on until shutdown, not before — while knowing the beacon program is voluntary, and the AIM cautions not to "rely solely on the rotating beacon as an indication that aircraft engines are in operation" (AIM 4-3-24).
Why are turbofan inlets and exhausts singled out as a postflight risk (VIII.A R3)?
Because the airplane gives no visual cue that it is dangerous. AFH ch. 16's ground-safety warning: "There is no propeller to indicate visually whether a jet engine is running." Even at idle, enough air is being sucked into the intake to pull a nearby person into the fan, and the exhaust "is hot and moving fast enough to blow a person down" (AFH ch. 16).
The postflight application: ground crew approach the airplane the moment it stops, and the engines are still turning — spooling down, or running while awaiting external power. The crew's mitigations are procedural: engines to the SOP state before signaling the ground crew in, beacon on until the engines are actually down (AIM 4-3-24), and nobody connects, chocks, or opens holds until the agreed signal is given.
What is FOD and why does the postflight phase generate it (VIII.A R3)?
Foreign object damage — ingestion of debris through the inlet, which "causes significant damage, particularly to the compressor and turbine sections… Sometimes FOD results in total destruction of an engine" (PHAK ch. 7). Some engine inlets form a vortex between the ground and the inlet during ground operations, which is why vortex dissipaters, screens, or deflectors are installed on some engines (PHAK ch. 7).
The ramp is where the debris lives: baggage tags, chocks, hardware, luggage-cart litter. Two postflight duties follow — taxi-in power stays at minimum near ground equipment because jet blast turns loose objects into projectiles for the aircraft and people behind you (AFH ch. 16), and the walkaround includes a deliberate look into the inlets and exhaust for damage and debris, since "preflight procedures include a visual inspection for any sign of FOD" (PHAK ch. 7) and your postflight is the next crew's preflight.
You had a hydraulic quantity caution in cruise. What does part 121 require of you after landing (VIII.A K2, 121.563)?
Write it down — tonight, in the airplane's log. "The pilot in command shall ensure that all mechanical irregularities occurring during flight time are entered in the maintenance log of the airplane at the end of that flight time" (121.563). Not on the next overnight, not by an ACARS message alone if the operator's manual requires a log entry — at the end of that flight time.
The rule is a loop, and the other half belongs to tomorrow's crew: "Before each flight the pilot in command shall ascertain the status of each irregularity entered in the log at the end of the preceding flight" (121.563). Your entry is what makes their review possible — which is why a useful write-up carries the conditions: what happened, when, in what phase, what the crew did, and what the airplane did in response.
Who closes out the discrepancy you wrote up, and where does that record live (121.701)?
Who: each person who takes action on a reported or observed failure or malfunction of an airframe, engine, propeller, or appliance that is critical to the safety of flight must record that action in the airplane's maintenance log (121.701(a)) — that is maintenance's entry, not yours.
Where: the certificate holder must have an approved procedure for keeping adequate copies of that record in the airplane, in a place readily accessible to each flight crewmember, and the procedure goes in the operator's manual (121.701(b)).
So the log you review at the start of a trip is a regulatory chain: crew entry (121.563), corrective-action or deferral entry (121.701), copies aboard where you can read them. The part 135 version is 135.65 — the operator provides a maintenance log carried on board, the PIC enters each irregularity that comes to the pilot's attention during flight time, determines the status of prior entries before each flight, and each person who takes corrective action or defers action records it (135.65(a)–(c)).
How do you get passengers off safely when there is no jet bridge (VIII.A R5)?
The ACS element is "disembarking passengers safely on the ramp and monitoring passenger movement while on the ramp" (VIII.A R5) — monitoring is continuous, not a one-time announcement. On a ramp or hardstand deplaning:
Nothing opens until the airplane is secured to the SOP state — engines down, beacon off (AIM 4-3-24), seatbelt sign per SOP
The path is defined before the first passenger moves — marked walkways, cones, or an escorting agent; the route keeps everyone clear of inlets, exhausts, and props, which stay dangerous on the airplanes parked next to you even after yours is quiet (AFH ch. 16)
Crew and ground staff watch the flow — the hazards are the wanderer photographing the airplane, the passenger returning for a bag, and the adjacent stand starting engines mid-deplaning
Coordination is explicit: who is on the ramp, who counts, who closes the door behind the last passenger
Deep Dive
The MEL, the CDL, and the airplane you accept tomorrow
The discrepancy you document tonight becomes a dispatch decision in the morning, so the evaluator will walk you from the squawk into the deferral machinery. This is the ATP version of K2 — the commercial guide's Task XI.A covers 91.213(d) deferrals for light airplanes; a turbine airplane does not get that option.
Can a turbine-powered airplane depart with something inoperative and no MEL?
No. Under 91.213(a), a turbine-powered airplane does not qualify to take off with inoperable instruments or equipment installed unless, among other requirements, an approved Minimum Equipment List exists for that aircraft and the aircraft is operated under all applicable conditions and limitations contained in the MEL (AFH ch. 16, citing 91.213(a)(5)). The part 91.213(d) pilot-deferral path is a non-turbine provision — it is not available to the airplane you are typing in.
Under part 121 the rule is 121.628(a): no person may take off an airplane with inoperable instruments or equipment unless an approved MEL exists for that airplane, the Flight Standards office has issued operations specifications authorizing operations in accordance with it, and the airplane is operated under all MEL and ops-spec conditions and limitations (121.628(a)(1), (2), (5)).
The rule also writes two access rights into your preflight: the flight crew shall have direct access at all times prior to flight to all of the information contained in the approved MEL (121.628(a)(2)), and records identifying the inoperable instruments and equipment must be available to the pilot (121.628(a)(4)). And one piece of legal standing worth quoting in the oral: an approved MEL, as authorized by the ops specs, "constitutes an approved change to the type design without requiring recertification" (121.628(a)(2)) — the airplane is airworthy with the item deferred because the MEL amended what the type design requires, not because a rule was waived.
What can never appear in an MEL (121.628(b))?
Three categories:
Instruments and equipment required by the airworthiness requirements under which the airplane is type certificated and which are essential for safe operations under all operating conditions (121.628(b)(1))
Instruments and equipment required by an airworthiness directive to be in operable condition, unless the AD provides otherwise (121.628(b)(2))
Instruments and equipment required for specific operations by part 121 (121.628(b)(3))
The relief valve: notwithstanding (b)(1) and (b)(3), an airplane with inoperable instruments or equipment may be operated under a special flight permit under 21.197 and 21.199 (121.628(c)) — the ferry-to-maintenance path when the item is not deferrable.
Your discrepancy gets deferred. What actually happens at the airplane, and what do the 'O' and 'M' codes mean?
From the AFH's MEL discussion (AFH ch. 16):
Deferral may be subject to limitations or conditional requirements stated in the MEL — operational, mechanical, or both. Mechanical conditions may require precautionary preflight checks, partial repairs before departure, or isolating and securing parts of the affected system.
Procedures performed to ensure safe operation are categorized as operations procedures or maintenance procedures — the MEL denotes which by an "O" or an "M". An O procedure is the crew's; an M procedure belongs to maintenance.
If conditions can be met, an authorized person makes an entry in the aircraft MEL Deferral Record and issues a temporary placard, affixed onto or next to the instrument or control "to remind the flight crew of any limitations."
Your acceptance duties the next morning follow directly: read the deferral, perform or confirm the O procedures, verify the placard, and apply the operational limitations to the day's dispatch.
When does the MEL stop applying — and what governs after that?
The MEL only applies while the aircraft sits on the ground awaiting departure or takeoff — it is "essentially a dispatching reference tool." Once the aircraft leaves the ground, any mechanical failures should be addressed using the appropriate checklists and approved AFM, not the MEL; a pilot may refer to the MEL for background, but actions in flight are based strictly on the AFM's Abnormal or Emergency sections (AFH ch. 16).
And where no dispatcher is required by the certificate, "flight crews still need to refer to the MEL before dispatching themselves" (AFH ch. 16). The clean oral answer: MEL before flight, AFM in flight, maintenance log after flight (121.563).
What is a Configuration Deviation List, and how does it differ from the MEL?
A CDL "is used in the same manner as an MEL but it differs in that it addresses missing external parts of the aircraft rather than failing internal systems" (AFH ch. 16). The AFH's examples:
Service doors
Power receptacle doors
Slat track doors
Landing gear doors
APU ram air doors
Flap fairings
Nose-wheel spray deflectors
Position light lens covers
Slat segment seals
Static dischargers
It matters on this task because the postflight walkaround is where missing external parts get found — a static discharger gone, a panel departed in flight. The finding goes in the maintenance log like any other discrepancy (121.563); whether the airplane goes out tomorrow morning, and with what performance or speed penalties, comes from the CDL.
Postflight inspection, securing, and the ramp environment
What does the postflight inspection and securing look like at this level (VIII.A S5, S6)?
S5 asks you to conduct a postflight inspection and document discrepancies and servicing requirements, if any; S6 asks you to secure the airplane. In an air-carrier operation much of the physical work belongs to ground staff and maintenance, so the graded skill is knowing what is yours:
The walkaround — gear, tires, and brakes; leaks; inlets and exhausts for FOD, since ingestion damage to the compressor and turbine can be severe and inlet inspection is a published procedure item (PHAK ch. 7); and the airframe for anything missing or struck, which feeds the CDL and the log
Servicing requirements documented, not assumed — fuel, oil, oxygen, and anything the flight consumed abnormally goes into the operator's system so the turn or the overnight crew inherits facts
Securing per the AFM and SOP — parking brake or chocks per the operator's procedure, gust-lock or flight-control protection as the type requires, doors and covers. The specific configuration is type-specific: take it from the AFM and your operator's procedures, not from a generic list
The log entry — securing is not complete until 121.563 is satisfied
What do airport security procedures require of you after the flight (VIII.A R4)?
The regulatory hook is short: certificate holders operating under part 121 must comply with the applicable security requirements in 49 CFR chapter XII (121.538) — the TSA's rules, implemented through your carrier's and the airport's security programs. Operationally that means:
Access control is personal — your badge, your challenge responsibility; airport security programs govern who may be airside and how doors and gates are used, and crews follow the local program rather than a generic one
The airplane is a controlled item — securing it (VIII.A S6) includes whatever the operator's security program requires for an aircraft left unattended: doors, access, and custody handoff to ground personnel
Passengers on the ramp are inside a security boundary — part of why R5's "monitoring passenger movement" is continuous; a wanderer is a security event as well as a safety one
At an outstation or a diversion field, the professional answer is that you ask the station or the airport authority what the local program requires instead of improvising.
What are the classic errors on this task?
Stopping with the tail on the hold-short line and reporting clear — clear means all parts beyond the runway holding position markings (AIM 4-3-21)
Accepting "taxi to the gate" as authority to cross a runway — it never is (AIM 4-3-21)
Reconfiguring during the turnoff — the flow waits until the airplane has cleared the runway (VIII.A S3)
Starting the debrief on the taxi in — sterile flight deck applies to all ground operations involving taxi (121.542(c))
Beacon off while the engines are still turning — ground crews may read it as safe to approach, even though the beacon program is voluntary and never the sole indication that engines are running (AIM 4-3-24)
Breakaway or gate-entry thrust near ground equipment — jet blast damage well behind the aircraft (AFH ch. 16)
The verbal squawk — telling the outbound captain at the crew room instead of entering it in the log at the end of that flight time (121.563)
Treating the MEL as an in-flight document — it is a dispatch tool; airborne failures run on the AFM (AFH ch. 16)
Task B. Seaplane Post-Landing Procedures (ASES, AMES)
To determine the applicant exhibits satisfactory knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with anchoring, docking, mooring, and ramping/beaching.
Conversational Q&A — quiz yourself before the oral.
When is Task VIII.B tested, and what does it cover?
Only when a sea class is on the ticket — the ATP Certificate Task Table assigns Area VIII Task B for ASES and AMES applicants (and Task A for the land classes), for both initial ATP applicants and added ratings (FAA-S-ACS-11A, Appendix 1). The objective is knowledge, risk management, and skills associated with anchoring, docking, mooring, and ramping/beaching (VIII.B objective), with knowledge elements for each of the four (K1–K4).
The knowledge core for each of the four is below; the full techniques — anchor scope, buoy approaches, beaching surfaces, ramping with the bow wave — are covered card-by-card from the Seaplane Handbook (FAA-H-8083-23) in the commercial guide's Task XI.B. What changes at the ATP level is the standard you are held to in judgment, crew coordination, and the carrier-style postflight that follows.
What do mooring and docking mean, and what is the core knowledge for each (VIII.B K1, K2)?
From the Seaplane Handbook (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6):
Mooring — tying the seaplane to a fixed structure on the surface: a floating buoy, a pier, or a floating raft. A permanent mooring is a heavy bottom weight connected by chain or cable to a buoy, and it "eliminates the problem of the anchor dragging"
Docking — securing the seaplane to a permanent structure fixed to the shore; the procedure is "essentially the same as for mooring, except that approaching directly into the wind may not be an option"
The shared core: approach at very low speed, shut down the engine early and let the seaplane coast in with nothing left; never straddle a buoy with a twin-float installation — keep the buoy to the outside of the float; check water-rudder responsiveness while still well clear of the dock, and if control seems marginal, turn away and plan another method
The step-by-step walk-throughs live in the commercial guide's Task XI.B.
What does the ACS require of an anchoring decision (VIII.B S2)?
Two graded judgments, verbatim from the skill element:
Select a suitable area considering seaplane movement, water depth, tide, wind, and weather changes (VIII.B S2)
Use an adequate number of anchors and lines of sufficient strength and length to ensure the seaplane's security (VIII.B S2)
Notice the ACS grades the considerations, not a formula — the evaluator wants to hear each factor addressed for the actual water in front of you: how much room the seaplane needs to swing as wind and tide shift, whether depth holds through the tidal cycle, and what the weather is going to do after you walk away. "Adequate number" and "sufficient strength and length" put the sizing burden on you; the working numbers and holding-ground judgment come from the Seaplane Handbook techniques covered in the commercial guide's Task XI.B.
And if you are not anchoring — what governs the approach to a dock, buoy, beach, or ramp (VIII.B S3)?
Approach the dock/mooring buoy or beach/ramp in the proper direction and at a safe speed, considering water depth, tide, current, and wind (VIII.B S3). Direction and energy are the whole game: a seaplane on the water has no brakes, so the approach is planned so that wind and current do the stopping, with the engine shut down early enough that the airplane arrives with nothing left to hurt anyone.
At the ATP level the evaluator is watching the decision structure around the technique — a committed point chosen in advance, an abort path away from the obstruction while control remains, and the call made early rather than salvaged late. The specific handling techniques for each variant are in the commercial guide's Task XI.B.
What does crew coordination add to a seaplane post-landing (VIII.B S4)?
Coordinate with crew, if applicable, and complete the appropriate checklist(s) (VIII.B S4). A seaplane arrival breaks the normal flow by design — the engine is often shut down mid-sequence to coast in, someone is out of a seat handling lines while the airplane is still moving, and the "gate" may be a dock with bystanders on it. So the coordination is briefed like a crew maneuver:
Who flies, who handles lines, and when the line handler leaves their seat — before the approach starts, not during it
What the abort call is and who can make it
The checklist finishes the interruption — an out-of-sequence shutdown means the written checklist is what verifies the airplane actually ended up secure, mixture/mags/master included
The single-pilot version still gets briefed out loud to the evaluator: at this level, the plan spoken in advance is the demonstration.
How do you manage activities and distractions during the post-landing phase on the water (VIII.B R1, S1)?
The distraction profile is unique: the engine is often already down and the seaplane is still moving while people start doing things — a line handler out of a seat, passengers unbuckling and talking as the dock nears, boat traffic and bystanders on the dock. Every one of them competes with the only task left: arriving with the energy already gone.
The mitigations are Task VIII.A's discipline with less help:
Sterile flight deck carries over — 121.542 makes all ground operations involving taxi critical phases, and the taxi to the dock is flown to that same standard, not as the start of the debrief (see Task VIII.A)
Roles are briefed before the approach (S4), so nobody improvises while the airplane coasts
Radio work is done early — comply with ATC or evaluator instructions and make radio calls as appropriate (VIII.B S1), whether that is a tower over a water lane, a base frequency, or only the evaluator on an empty lake — so the close-in phase is heads-up and quiet
What does 'secure the seaplane' require once it is anchored, moored, or beached (VIII.B S5)?
Secure the seaplane, considering the effects of wind, waves, and changes in water level; if ramping, comply with appropriate ground movement procedures (VIII.B S5). The three named forces are the ones that move a seaplane after you leave it: wind swings and drags it, waves work it loose or pound it, and water level — tide or river stage — either floats it free or strands it: an incoming tide can float a beached seaplane in just a few minutes, and a receding tide can leave it stranded 30 or 40 feet from the water in a few hours (FAA-H-8083-23 ch. 6).
The securing answer therefore has a time dimension the land task lacks: not "is it tied now" but "what does this spot look like at low water, at the forecast wind, tonight." The ramping clause folds you back into land-side discipline — once the seaplane is on a ramp it is in a ground-movement environment, and the applicable procedures for that surface apply, just as an amphibian on pavement falls under everything in Task VIII.A.
Why does a seaplane task carry a 'propeller, turbofan inlet, and exhaust safety' risk element (VIII.B R3)?
Because the deadliest moments in seaplane post-landing involve people near a running or recently running engine, in an environment with no fences and no marshallers. The propeller case is the classic: helpers and line handlers moving along floats and docks near a prop arc while the crew's attention is on the water. The mitigation is built into proper technique — the engine is shut down early and the seaplane coasts in, so nobody is ever asked to work close to a turning propeller.
The turbofan wording matters for the airplanes this ACS is written around: an inlet at idle can pull a person in and the exhaust can knock one down, with no propeller to warn that the engine is running (AFH ch. 16). On any turbine seaplane or amphibian operation, dock staff and passengers get the same inlet/exhaust clearance discipline as an airline ramp crew — engines verified down before anyone approaches or disembarks.
What does the postflight inspection and documentation duty look like after a water operation (VIII.B S6)?
The same closing skill as the land task: conduct a postflight inspection and document discrepancies and servicing requirements, if any (VIII.B S6) — and if the operation is under part 121 or 135, the same regulatory machinery applies: irregularities entered in the maintenance log at the end of that flight time (121.563), corrective or deferral action recorded and copies accessible to the crew (121.701, 135.65). Water adds its own inspection items — bilge pumping, corrosion flushing after salt water, water-rudder rigging — which are covered from the Seaplane Handbook in the commercial guide's Task XI.B.
The ATP habit to demonstrate: the water-specific findings go into the same documentation system as everything else. "Some water in the left float, more than usual" is a maintenance-log entry with a quantity and a location, not a remark to the dock hand.
How do security and passenger risks change at a seaplane base (VIII.B R4, R5)?
The elements read like the land task — airport/seaplane base security procedures (R4) and disembarking passengers safely on the ramp and monitoring passenger movement while on the ramp (R5) — but the environment removes the infrastructure that usually does the work for you:
A seaplane base may have no fence, no badge access, and no staff; where a security program exists (a carrier's program, a base operator's rules), you comply with it, and where none exists you say so and secure the airplane accordingly rather than inventing procedures
Passengers step onto docks, ramps, and beaches — slippery surfaces at the water's edge, with boat traffic and other aircraft movements no one is directing. The monitoring duty in R5 is continuous, and the walking route, the order of movement, and who is watching are decided before the first door opens
The propeller/inlet clearance rules of R3 apply to every neighboring aircraft, not just yours
Same principle as Task VIII.A, executed with less help.